You are reading product reviews posted online by consumers. Which external information source are you using?

Lee Airlines plans to issue 12-year bonds with a par value of $1,000 that will pay $70 every six months. The bonds have a market

Zielflug [23.3K]

Answer:

After tax cost of debt = 10.43%

Explanation:

Market price = 960

Flotation cost = 0.07

Market price after Flotation cost = 960*(1-0.07) = 960*0.93 = 892.8

Face value = 1,000

Interest payment (PMT) = 1000*0.07 = 70

Term of payment = 12*2 = 24

Cost of debt before tax = Rate(24, 70, -892.8, 1000, 0)*2

Cost of debt before tax = 0.080198497*2

Cost of debt before tax = 0.160396994

Cost of debt before tax = 16.04%

Tax rate = 35%

After tax cost of debt = 16.04% * (1-35%)

After tax cost of debt = 0.1604*0.65

After tax cost of debt = 0.10426

After tax cost of debt = 10.43%

6 0

3 years ago

Puffin Corporation makes a property distribution to its sole shareholder, Bonnie. The property distributed is a car (basis of $3

Svetllana [295]

Answer:

Puffin’s E & P after taking into account the distribution of the car is $6,000.

Explanation:

E & P will be decreased by the higher of the adjusted basis or the fair market value of the distributed property, net of any liabilities. The distribution losses will not be taken into consideration when determining E & P. Thus the current E & P of Puffin’s $30,000 is reduced by $24,000 ($30,000 basis of the car minus the liability amount). The remaining after the distribution current E & P will be $6,000.

Therefore, Puffin’s E & P after taking into account the distribution of the car is $6,000.

5 0

3 years ago

A firm, with an 18% cost of capital, is considering the

mafiozo [28]

Answer:

a. $316,920

Explanation:

The computation of the net present value for Project A is shown below:

The net present value = Cash inflow after considering the discount factor - initial cost or initial investment

Cash inflow after considering the discount factor = $7,400,000

The discount factor for 4 years at 18% = 0.5158

So, the cash inflow is

= $7,400,000 × 0.5158

= $3,816,920

And, the initial investment is $3,500,000

So, the net present value is

= $3,816,920 - $3,500,000

= $316,920

3 0

3 years ago

During the year, Next Tec Corp. had the following cash flows: receipt from customers, $10,000; receipt from the bank for long-te

VikaD [51]

Answer:

The net financing cash flows is $5000 as shown below.

Explanation:

The net financing cash flows is calculated below:

Receipt from bank for long-term borrowing $6000

Payment of dividends <u> ($1000)</u>

Net financing cash flows $5000

Receipt of $10000 relates to operating cash flows as it is cash receipt in the ordinary course of business

Payment to suppliers of $5000 is an operating cash flow as well as suppliers are paid for supplying the items that the business deals in, same applies to payment to workers of $2000.

Lastly, the payment for machinery of $8000 relates to investing activities of the business as it an expenditure incurred to generate more returns.

5 0

3 years ago

You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pr

KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

EAC Techron I = -$141,050

EAC Techron II = -$138,181

Explanation:

Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $78,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)³] / 0.11 = 2.4437

depreciation expense per year = ($285,000 - $55,000) / 3 = $76,667

cash outflow years 1 and 2 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 = $40,880

cash outflow year 3 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 - $55,000 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 - $55,000 = -$14,120

NPV = -285,000 - 40,880/1.11 - 40,880/1.11² + 14,120/1.11³ = -285,000 - 36,829 - 33,179 + 10,324 = -344,684

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -344,684 / 2.4437 = -$141,050

Techron II costs $495,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $45,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)⁵] / 0.11 = 3.6959

depreciation expense per year = ($495,000 - $55,000) / 5 = $88,000

cash outflow years 1 through 4 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 = $13,080

cash outflow year 5 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 - $55,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 - $55,000 = -$41,920

NPV = -495,000 - 13,080/1.11 - 13,080/1.11² - 13,080/1.11³ - 13,080/1.11⁴ + 41,920/1.11⁵ = -495,000 - 11,784 - 10,616 - 9,564 - 8,616 + 24,877 = -510,703

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -510,703 / 3.6959 = -$138,181

4 0

3 years ago