Answer:
240
Explanation:
The computation of the optimal fee per unit of output is as follows:
As we know that
Marginal cost = Price
MC = P
1Q = 2,400 - Q
1Q + Q = 2,400
2Q = 2,400
Q = 2,400 ÷ 2
= 1,200
MC = 0.8Q
= 0.8 (1,200)
= 960
Now the optimal fee per unit of output is
= 1,200 - 960
= 240
Answer:
Inventory $200,000
Cash $50,000
Notes payable $150,000
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Cost of the inventory purchased = $200,000
Amount paid in cash = one-fourth
= one-fourth of $200,000
= $50,000
For the remaining balance signed a note i.e = $200,000 - $50,000
= $150,000
Now,
This transaction will be recorded as:
Inventory $200,000
Cash $50,000
Notes payable $150,000
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": Expensed in the period incurred.
Explanation:
Research and Development (R&D) costs are spent on the development of new products that could or could not end up being commercially offered. These kinds of costs are usually expensed at the same time they are incurred. According to the U.S. Statement of Financial Accounting Standards, the R&D costs cannot be capitalized.
Answer: False
Explanation:
In both the first and second years, firms in country A undertook FDI projects of $20 billion in country B. This means that Country A had FDI outflows of $20 billion in those two years not inflows. Inflows are what happens when the FDI is coming into the country.
Country B on the other hand, was receiving money from country A. Country B therefore had FDI inflows of $20 billion in each of the two years and not outflows like Country A had.
Answer:
Explanation:
Walsh’s percentage invested in inventory is closest to the result of the amount invested in inventory divided by the total asset then expressed as a percentage.
Mathematically,
percentage invested in inventory = Inventory balance/ total assets * 100%
This is
= $530,000/$1,170,000 * 100%
= 45.3%
