As a result of the demand increasing only slightly compared to the reduction in price, the demand must be <u>inelastic</u>.
<h3>Why is the demand inelastic?</h3><h3 />
The demand is considered to be inelastic if the price elasticity is less than 1.
The price elasticity is:
= (%Change in quantity/% Change in price)
Solving gives:
= 15 / 200 ÷ 0.50 / 3.50
= -0.525
In conclusion, the demand for the shakes is inelastic.
Find out more on inelastic demand at brainly.com/question/1899986.
Answer:
$2,610
Explanation:
Calculation for how much money you must borrow.
Using this formula
Amount to be borrowed =( Purchased shares* Per share price*(Initial margin requirement percentage)
Let plug in the formula
Amount to be borrowed= 150 shares*$60 per shares *(1-0.71)
Amount to be borrowed=$9,000*(0.29)
Amount to be borrowed=$2,610
Therefore how much money you must borrow will be $2,610
Answer:
$400 .Since inventory is valued at cost or market value(current replacement cost) whichever is lower .
Therefore value of inventory : $400*8=$3200
Explanation:
<span>Cross-sell is the practice of selling or suggesting related or complementary products to a prospect or customer. Cross selling is one of the easiest and most effective methods of marketing.</span>
<u>Full question:</u>
On June 15, Harper purchased equipment for $100,000 from Imperial Corp. for use in its manufacturing process. Harper paid for the equipment with funds borrowed from Eastern Bank. Harper gave Eastern a security agreement and financing statement covering Harper’s existing and after-acquired equipment. On June 21, Harper was petitioned involuntarily into bankruptcy under Chapter 7 of the Federal Bankruptcy Code. A bankruptcy trustee was appointed. On June 23, Eastern filed the financing statement. Which of the parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment?
A. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the filing of the financing statement after the commencement of the bankruptcy case would be deemed a preferential transfer.
B. The trustee in bankruptcy, because the trustee became a lien creditor before Eastern perfected its security interest.
C. Eastern, because it had a perfected purchase money security interest without having to file a financing statement.
D. Eastern, because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Answer:</u>
Eastern parties will have a superior security interest in the equipment because it perfected its security interest within the permissible time limits.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Eastern has a higher security interest because Eastern amended its security interest inside the allowable time deadlines. A perfected security interest in any security interest in an asset that cannot be demanded by any other party.
Below the Uniform Commercial Code (U.C.C.), to perfect a security interest, a lender has 10 days from the date of the sale of material to perfect the security interest by filing a financing statement. Possessing registered in the 10-day limit, Eastern has a strong perfected security interest in the material and after-acquired things even though the bankruptcy was recorded two days ahead.
