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3 years ago

Which statement is the converse of the given statment

1 answer:

4 0

Might seem controversial though :) but I am pretty sure that the correct variant that properly shows the converse of given statement is the third one. As you know, the converse (in plane language) has the same meaning of the statement just by replacing two points. This statement has positive tone (if you make - you ll have) so it's directly coincides with C(you have, cause you have made)

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Jackson Company produces plastic that is used for injection-molding applications such as gears for small motors. In 2016, the fi

valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

a.Income Statement using variable costing

2016 2017

Sales $7,872,000 $9,840,000

Less Cost of Sales ($1,338,240) ($1,672,800)

Opening Stock $0 $334,560

Add Cost of Goods Manufactured $1,672,800 $1,338,240

Less Closing Stock ($334,560) $0

Contribution $6,533,760 $8,167,200

Less Expenses :

Fixed manufacturing costs ($3,075,000) ($3,075,000)

Selling Expenses : Variable ($862,920) ($1,082,400)

Selling Expenses : Fixed ($500,000) ($500,000)

Net Income / (loss) $2,095,840 $3,509,800

b.Income Statement using absorption costing

2016 2017

Sales $7,872,000 $9,840,000

Less Cost of Sales ($3,798,240) ($5,362,800)

Opening Stock $0 $949,560

Add Cost of Goods Manufactured $4,747,800 $4,413,240

Less Closing Stock ($949,560) $0

Gross Profit $4,073,760 $4,477,200

Less Expenses :

Selling Expenses : Variable ($862,920) ($1,082,400)

Selling Expenses : Fixed ($500,000) ($500,000)

Net Income / (loss) $2,710,840 $2,894,800

c. Reconciliation of Absorption costing Net Income to variable costing profit

2016 2017

Absorption Costing Net Income $2,710,840 $2,894,800

Fixed Manufacturing Cost in Opening Stock $0 $615,000

Fixed Manufacturing Cost in Closing Stock ($615,000) $0

Variable Costing Net Income $2,095,840 $3,509,800

Explanation:

Part a.

Under Variable Costing, Only Variable Manufacturing Costs are treated as Product costs. Fixed Manufacturing costs and All Non-Manufacturing Costs are treated as period costs.

Part b

Under Absorption Costing, Both Variable Manufacturing Costs and Fixed Manufacturing costs are treated as Product costs. All Non-Manufacturing Costs are treated as period costs.

Part c.

The difference between the Net Income under Absorption Costing and Variable Costing is due to Fixed Manufacturing Costs that are deferred in Inventory. This needs to be reconciled accordingly.

5 0

3 years ago

The value of an asset is determined by discounting the future cash flows generated by the asset using the:

Nadusha1986 [10]

The value of an asset is determined by discounting the future cash flows generated by the assets using the DISCOUNTED CASH FLOW ANALYSIS. Dis counted cash flow analysis is used to value projects, assets or companies using the concept of the time value of money. This method is used to determine the attractiveness of an investment.

5 0

3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta of th

pentagon [3]

Answer (A):

Need more data to select the better adviser

Explanation: 

Adviser A averaged 19% return on the investment which is more than that of Adviser B who averaged 16% return on investment. However, adviser A has a beta of 1.5 which is also greater than that of Adviser B who has a beta of 1. This means that adviser A made a more riskier investment and hence a higher average return on investment. We need more data to tell which adviser performed better in relation to each other.

Answer (B):

Investment Adviser B

Explanation:

$R_{f}$ = T-bill rate = 6%

$R_{m}$ = Market return = 14%

$R_{m} - R_{f}$ = Market risk premium = 14% - 6% = 8%

$ER_{a}$ = Average Return by Adviser A =19%

$\beta _{a}$ = Beta of Adviser A = 1.5

$ER_{b}$ = Average Return by Adviser B =16%

$\beta _{b}$ = Beta of Adviser B = 1

CAPM Equation is $ER_{i} = R_{f} +\beta (R_{m} - R_{f} ) +\alpha$

For Adviser A

$ER_{i}$ = 6 + 1.5 (14 - 6) = 18%

The expected average return for the investment is 18% which means that Adviser A over performed the market by 1 %

For Adviser B

$ER_{i}$ = 6 + 1 (14 - 6) = 14%

The expected average return for the investment is 14% which means that the Adviser B over performed the market by 2 %

Clearly, Adviser B performed better than Adviser A.

Answer (C):

Adviser B

Explanation:

In this part, the $R_{f} = 3 %$ and $R_{m} = 15%$

All else remains the same

We make similar calculation as in part B

4 0

3 years ago

A corn farmer is considered a ________ if he chooses not to join the national interest group his fellow farmers created, yet sti

muminat

A corn farmer is considered a free rider if he chooses not to join the national interest group his fellow farmers created, yet still reaps the benefits of the tax incentives the group lobbied for and won.
The free rider problem is an economic concept of a market failure that occurs when people or individuals are benefiting from resources, goods or services that they do not pay for. In our case, the corn farmer is benefiting from the tax incentives the group lobbied for, yet he or she made zero input or effort to contribute to the groups agenda in getting tax incentives.

7 0

3 years ago

Suppose the marginal propensity to consume is 0.75 and the government spending multiplier is 4. If the government decreases its

kvasek [131]

Answer:

Left by $400; Left by $300

Explanation:

Given that,

Marginal propensity to consume, MPC = 0.75

Government spending multiplier = 4

(a) If the government decreases its purchases by $100 million, then the magnitude of the shift in aggregate demand curve is calculated by multiplying the change in government spending to the government spending multiplier.

Aggregate demand curve shift left by

= Change in government spending × Government spending multiplier

= $100 × 4

= $400 million

(b) If the government increases income taxes by $100 million, then the magnitude of the shift in aggregate demand curve is calculated by multiplying the change in taxes to the tax multiplier.

Tax multiplier:

= MPC ÷ (1 - MPC)

= 0.75 ÷ (1 - 0.75)

= 0.75 ÷ 0.25

= 3

Aggregate demand curve shift left by

= Change in taxes × Tax multiplier

= $100 × 3

= $300 million

5 0

3 years ago