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lutik1710 [3]
3 years ago
5

Sue Bee Honey is one of the largest processors of its product for the retail market. Assume that one of its plants has annual fi

xed costs total $8,000,000, of which $3,000,000 is for administrative and selling efforts. Sales are anticipated to be 800,000 cases a year. Variable costs for processing are $40 per case, and variable selling expenses are 25 percent of the selling price. There are no variable administrative expenses.
Required

If the company desires a profit of $5,000,000. what is the selling price per case?
Business
2 answers:
alina1380 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The selling price per case is $75

Explanation:

Sue Bee Honey

Profit is a function of how well a company is able to absorb/cover its costs of doing business.

Thus, to derive Profit we will consider this format;

Sales = xx

Less Variable costs = x

Contribution = xx

Less Fixed Costs = x

gross Profit = xx

Less selling & Admin expense x

Profit = x

Assume sales which is unknown is a

Sales = a

Less Variable costs = 40 x 800,000 = $32,000,000...,.(b)

Contribution = a minus b ..... (C)

Less Fixed Costs = $5,000,000....(d)

gross Profit = c - d.....….(e)

Less fixed selling & Admin expense = $3,000,000.......(f)

Less Variable selling expense = 25% x (a)...…g

Profit = $5,000,000

Stretching this out in a mathematical format.

5,000,000 + 3,000,000 + 5,000,000 + 32,000,000 = a - 25% of a = 0.75a

$45,000,000 = 0.75a

a = Sales = 45,000,000/0.75 = $60,000,000

To derive selling Price:

Divide sales by sales units = $60,000,000 / 800,000 = $75 per unit

NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$75 per case

Explanation:

Required: Selling Price per case

Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit

Sales = 800000 case x Selling Price (SP)

Variable cost = (800000 case x $40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)

Putting into equation:

Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit

(800000 x SP) – [(800000 x 40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)] - $8000000 = $ 5000000

>800000SP – (32000000 + 200000SP) – 8000000 = 5000000

>800000SP – 32000000 – 200000SP – 8000000 = 5000000

>800000SP – 200000SP = 5000000 + 8000000 + 32000000

>600000SP = 45000000

>SP = 45000000 / 600000

>SP = $ 75

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3 years ago
What are the underlying reasons for the law to continue to make distinctions between real and personal property, intangible and
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Answer:

In trying to made distinction between the real and personal property as the law provided, there is need to define both terms.

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Personal property are those properties that are movable and example of such is money.

So, in both properties, the nature of use and level of controls the owner have over them differs and that is why the law provided specific rules and regulations over their ownership, possession and or transferrability. As for Real Properties, the law is very strict about it since it is a rigid property and its transferrability requires deed of agreement which much must be signed by witnesses from all parties involves and registered at the deed registry. The law also provides very strict tax regulations on landed property. As for the personal property, the regulation on it is less compare to that of real since it's movable and can be asset by the owner at any time and transfer of ownership is flexible. So, the law will continue to make distinction between these two types of property as they requires different regulations and their level of control differs.

Also for the tangible and intangible property, the law will continue to make distinction between them since one can be seen and the other can't.

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Intangible properties are those properties that can not seen physically but exist on papers. Their impact can only be felt. Example of such properties are intellectual properties that are backed by copyrights, Academic presentations protected from plagiarism, checks and certificates of deposits.

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At the end of a full year mary garber had $6248.95 in her saving account. If the rate of interest was 12.253%, how much money di
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

$5,566.84

Explanation:

to determine the amount of money that Mary had in her account at the beginning of the year we can use the resent value formula:

present value (PV) = future value (FV) / (1 + interest rate)ⁿ

where:

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PV = $6,248.95 / (1 + 12.253%) = $6,248.95 / 1.12253 = $5,566.84

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