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Sholpan [36]
3 years ago
10

Terrell Trucking Company is in the process of setting its target capital structure. The CFO believes that the optimal debt-to-ca

pital ratio is somewhere between 20% and 50%, and her staff has compiled the following projections for EPS and the stock price at various debt levels:
Debt/Capital Ratio Projected EPS Projected Stock Price
20% $3.15 $35.00
30 3.60 35.75
40 3.70 37.00
50 3.55 32.25

Required:
a. Assuming that the firm uses only debt and common equity, what is Terrell's optimal capital structure?
b. At what debt-to-capital ratio is the company's WACC minimized?
Business
1 answer:
Semenov [28]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. Terrell's Optimal Capital Structure is 40:60. It means to obtain optimal capital structure in-order to increase value of firm, Terrell should finance 40% of its Assets through Debt and remaining through Common Equity.

b. The optimal Capital Structure is the point where company's WACC is minimized. So, 40:60 is the ratio where Terrell's WACC will be minimized.

Explanation:

The goal of Management is to increase Shareholders' wealth and not to generate profits because wealth is something that is for long-run whereas Profits are temporary. Management would accept projects having negative NPV if its goal is to maximize Profit.

Maximizing Shareholders' wealth means to increase the Share Price whereas Generating a higher EPS is Profit Maximization Strategy. So, you should look for that Capital Structure Point where the Company's Stock Price is Highest.

Thanks!

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Answer:

The responsibilities of the Federal Reserve include influencing the supply of money and credit; regulating and supervising financial institutions; serving as a banking and fiscal agent for the United States government; and supplying payments services to the public through depository institutions like banks.

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Read 2 more answers
Monte’s Coffee Company purchased packaging equipment on January 5, 2014, for $86,900. The equipment was expected to have a usefu
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Answer:

1.A

2014 Depreciation

Straight line method $26,667

Units-of-output $34,560

Double declining balance $57,933

2015 Depreciation

Straight line method $26,667

Units-of-output $26,840

Double declining balance $19,311

2016 Depreciation

Straight line method $26,667

Units-of-output $18,600

Double declining balance $6,437

1.B Total Depreciation in 3 years

Straight line method $80,000

Units-of-output $80,000

Double declining balance $83,681

2. Double declining balance yields the highest depreciation expense over the three-year life of an equipment

Explanation:

1.A In computing straight line method, the formula would be:

(cost of equipment - salvage value) / life of equipment

2014

(86,900 - 6,900) / 3 years = 26,667

2015

(86,900 - 6,900) / 3 years = 26,667

2016

(86,900 - 6,900) / 3 years = 26,667

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 3 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $80,001 ($26,667 + $26,667 + $26,667)

UNITS-OF-OUTPUT METHOD

Formula: (Cost of equipment - salvage value) / total operating hours of equipment x operating hours used for the year

2014

($86,900 - 6,900) / 20,000 x 8,640

($80,000 / 20,000) x 8,640

$4 per hour x 8,640 = $34,560

2015

$86,900 - 6,900) / 20,000 x 6,710

($80,000 / 20,000) x 6,710

$4 per hour x 6,710 = $26,840

2016

$86,900 - 6,900) / 20,000 x 4,650

($80,000 / 20,000) x 4,650

$4 per hour x 4,650 = $18,600

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 3 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $80,000 ($34,560 + $26,840 + $18,600)

DOUBLE DECLINING BALANCE

Formula: 100%/life of equipment x 2

*residual value will not be considered in this method of computation of depreciation expense.

2014

100% / 3 years x 2 = 66,67%

86,900 x 66.67% = $57,933

2015

100% / 3 years x 2 = 66,67%

$86,900 - $57,933 = $28,967

$28,967 x 66.67% = $19,311

2016

100% / 3 years x 2 = 66,67%

$86,900 - ($57,933 + $19,311) = $9,656

$9,656 x 66.67% = $6,437

TOTAL DEPRECIATION IN 3 YEAR LIFE OF EQUIPMENT = $83,681 ($57,933 + $19,311+ $6,437)

2. The method that yields most depreciation over the three-year life of an equipment is the DOUBLE DECLINING METHOD in a total amount of $83,681

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how does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? explain with an example of your own.​
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Answer:

Money is a medium of exchange and satisfaction of needs.

Explanation:

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Answer:

A sales.

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In this scenario, Mining Corporation purchases the business assets of Open Pit Inc., including its equipment and supplies, for an agreed-to price, payable in installments. Under the UCC, this transaction is a sales.

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Answer:

Migration refers to the movement of a group of people from one geographical region (location) to another geographical destination in search of better living conditions, work or social amenities.

Explanation:

Migration refers to the movement of a group of people from one geographical region (location) to another geographical destination in search of better living conditions, work or social amenities.

Migration selectivity can be defined as the likelihood or tendency that a subset (part) of a group of people are going to move (migrate) out of a particular geographical location or area.

Some of the factors that influence migration selectivity are income level, age, education, gender etc.

One way migration affects various locations across the world such as Texas, Brazil, Paris, Rome, Stuttgart, Kyiv, etc., includes the establishment of different restaurants. For example, the establishment of KFC, McDonalds, Mr Biggs were influenced by the migration of people across European cities and as such served as tourist attraction centers, thus, positively affecting the character of these places.

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3 years ago
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