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Sholpan [36]
2 years ago
10

Terrell Trucking Company is in the process of setting its target capital structure. The CFO believes that the optimal debt-to-ca

pital ratio is somewhere between 20% and 50%, and her staff has compiled the following projections for EPS and the stock price at various debt levels:
Debt/Capital Ratio Projected EPS Projected Stock Price
20% $3.15 $35.00
30 3.60 35.75
40 3.70 37.00
50 3.55 32.25

Required:
a. Assuming that the firm uses only debt and common equity, what is Terrell's optimal capital structure?
b. At what debt-to-capital ratio is the company's WACC minimized?
Business
1 answer:
Semenov [28]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. Terrell's Optimal Capital Structure is 40:60. It means to obtain optimal capital structure in-order to increase value of firm, Terrell should finance 40% of its Assets through Debt and remaining through Common Equity.

b. The optimal Capital Structure is the point where company's WACC is minimized. So, 40:60 is the ratio where Terrell's WACC will be minimized.

Explanation:

The goal of Management is to increase Shareholders' wealth and not to generate profits because wealth is something that is for long-run whereas Profits are temporary. Management would accept projects having negative NPV if its goal is to maximize Profit.

Maximizing Shareholders' wealth means to increase the Share Price whereas Generating a higher EPS is Profit Maximization Strategy. So, you should look for that Capital Structure Point where the Company's Stock Price is Highest.

Thanks!

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If an externality is present resulting in market failure then
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<span>Then the private benefit from consumption will will not be the same as the social benefit from consumption.</span>

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On January 1, 2019, East Lansing, Inc., issues $2,000,000 of 10 percent, 5-year bonds that pay interest of $100,000 semiannually
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Answer:

The issue price of the bond is the present value of  the future cash flows of the bond,which is $2,162,217.92.  

The calculation of the issue price is shown below.

Explanation

The bond will pay interest of $100000 for 10 periods plus $2000000 par at the end of the tenth period.

The formula applicable is: Future value of each period multiplied by applicable discounting factor.

Even though the bond is issued for only 5 years,but the fact that it pays interest semi-annually makes it 10 period duration(5years*2).

Interest rate should also be adjusted to show the time horizon of six month each by dividing 8% per year by 2.

The detailed computation of present value is as follows:

 Periods   Coupon Interest @10%/2   DCF=1/(1+r)^n   PV  

1.00                 100,000.00                     0.9615            96,153.85  

2.00                  100,000.00                       0.9246     92,455.62  

3.00                  100,000.00                        0.8890      88,899.64  

4.00                   100,000.00                          0.8548      85,480.42  

5.00                    100,000.00                            0.8219      82,192.71  

6.00                    100,000.00                            0.7903     79,031.45  

7.00                    100,000.00                             0.7599    75,991.78  

8.00                    100,000.00                             0.7307    73,069.02  

9.00                    100,000.00                             0.7026     70,258.67  

10.00                    2,100,000.00                     0.6756   <u>1,418,684.75</u>  

                                                                           <u> 2,162,217.92</u>  

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