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marusya05 [52]
3 years ago
7

Sales variances may be computed in a manner similar to cost variances–that is, computing both price and volume variances.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sholpan [36]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is True.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sales variance is computed in same manner as cost variance that is computing both price and volume variance. However interpretation of end result will not be same. For example in material price variance if

A = actual purchase price = $ 4, B = standard purchase price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity purchased = 500 units then

Material price varaince = 500 (5-4) = 500,

This gives us favourable price variance of 500 dollars. However in sales price variance if

A = actual sales price = $ 4, B = standard sale price= $ 5 and Qt= quantity sold = 500 units then

Sale price varaince = 500 (5-4) = (500)

This gives us unfavourable sales price variance of 500 dollars.

This show that formulas to compute variances are same but sale price decrease give us un favorable variance and cost price decrease gives us favorable price variance and vice versa.

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Is this right if not please tell me the right answer
zhuklara [117]

Answer: 57% for the first and 41% for the second

Step-by-step explanation:

Treatment 1 consists of 40 people and 23 had improved health take 23 and divide it by 40 and you get 0.575 multiply that by 100 and you get 57% do the same for the second question and you get 0.416 multiply by 100 and you get 41%

8 0
2 years ago
How can you determine if a function is linear or nonlinear from the graph of the function???
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]
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2 years ago
What is the slope of the line passing through the points (5,7) (-4,2)
MariettaO [177]
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5 0
3 years ago
Which is most likely the correlation coefficient for the set of data shown?
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

-.91

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not 100% sure, because i don't have graphing calculator on me, but the correlation coefficient is how well the line of best fit goes with the data, and the data points on the graph look like they match the line. The closer the correlation coefficient is to 1 or -1, means that it has a strong correlation coefficient. It's negative because the slope of the line is negative. If you really want to make sure, you can plug it into a graphing calculator in STAT.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The average test scores for a particular test in algebra was 84 with a standard deviation of 5. What percentage of the students
bija089 [108]

Answer:

The percentage of the students scored higher than 89% is 15.87%

Step-by-step explanation:

we are given

The average test scores for a particular test in algebra was 84

so, mean is 84

\mu=84

a standard deviation of 5

so,

\sigma=5

we have

x=89

now, we can use z-score formula

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}

now, we can plug values

z=\frac{89-84}{5}

z=1

now, we can use calculator

and we get

p(z>1)=0.1587

So,

The percentage of the students scored higher than 89% is 15.87%

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3 years ago
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