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horrorfan [7]
4 years ago
5

A class has a total of 135 absences over 18 weeks. what is the mean number of absences per week?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]4 years ago
5 0
135 divided by 18 is 7.5 so I would guess 7 each week and maybe possibly 8 on some weeks
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The table below represents the equation: y = 1.5x – 2 If you completed this table, would each input have exactly one output? yes
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: y=1.5(3)-2

y=2.5

7 0
3 years ago
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How much greater is the mass of Can A than Can B? cola cola B Con A: 20 grams Can B: 480 grams 360 grams 340 grams 240 grams 260
yarga [219]

Answer:

I would say 340 grams........

Step-by-step explanation:

340 grams

3 0
3 years ago
What is four and five eighths as a improper fraction and a mixed number
Afina-wow [57]
4 5/8 as an improper fraction is 37/8
——> 8*4=32 32+5=37
As a mixed number it is the same I think. 5 can’t decide into 8 so it stays 4 5/8.

Hopefully this helps...
5 0
3 years ago
If f(x) = -7x + 1 and g(x) = Square root of x-5,<br> what is (fºg)(41)?
Ghella [55]

This is similar to the other question you posted. Follow the same steps as before.

First find g(41).

g(41) = sqrt{x - 5}

g(41) = sqrt{41 - 5}

g(41) = sqrt{36}

g(41) = 6

We now find f(6).

f(6) = -7(6) + 1

f(6) = -42 + 1

f(6) = -41

Answer:

(fºg)(41) = -41

Did you follow?

6 0
3 years ago
In a casino game, gamblers are allowed to roll n fair, 6-sided dice. If a 6 shows up on any of them, the gambler gets nothing. I
Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

a) \bf \boxed{W(n) = 3*n*\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^n\;dollars}

the smallest n that maximizes the expected payoff is n=5.

b) 4

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The expected amount of $ won for each die would be the average of 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 which is $3.

Let W(n) the expected money won when rolling n dice.  

n =1

If the gambler rolls only one die, the expected money won would be $3 times the probability of not getting a 6, which is 5/6.

So  

\bf W(1) = 3*1*\frac{5}{6}

n=2

If the gambler rolls 2 dice, the expected money won would be $3 times the probability of not getting a 6 in any of the dice. Since the outcome of the rolling does not depend on the previous rollings, the probability is  

\bf \frac{5}{6}\times\frac{5}{6}=\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^2

and

\bf W(2) = 3*2*\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^2

n=3

Similarly, since the probability of not getting a 6 in 3 dice equals

\bf \left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^3

\bf W(3) = 3*3*\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^3

and the formula for the expected money won with n dice would be

\bf \boxed{W(n) = 3*n*\left( \frac{5}{6} \right)^n\;dollars}

In the picture attached there is a plot of the values of the expected money won for n=1 to 20 (See picture)

For n=5 and n=6 we get the maximum profit expected of $6.02816=$6 rounded to the nearest integer.

Hence, the smallest n that maximizes the expected payoff is n=5.

b)

The probability that face k (k=1,2,...or 6) shows up is 1/6,

as this face can be in any of the 10 positions of the arrangement, there are 10 ways that face k can show up.

The probability that face k (k=1,2,...or 6) shows up twice is \bf \left( \frac{1}{6} \right)^2

as this face can be in any of the \bf C(10;2)=\binom{10}{2} (combinations of 10 taken 2 at a time) positions of the arrangement, there are C(10;2) ways that face k can show up twice.

The probability that face k (k=1,2,...or 6) shows up three times is \bf \left( \frac{1}{6} \right)^3

as this face can be in any of the \bf C(10;3)=\binom{10}{2} (combinations of 10 taken 2 at a time) positions of the arrangement, there are C(10;3) ways that face k can show up twice.

So, we infer that the expectation is  

\bf \sum_{k=1}^{10}\binom{10}{k}(1/6)^k=3.6716\approx 4

and the expected number of distinct dice values that show up is 4.

4 0
4 years ago
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