The answer is 90.95 percent
<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The graph that represents the function
f(x) = (x + 4)(x + 1)(x - 3)
crosses the x-axis three times: at x = -4, x = -1, and x = 3
because we apply the zero product rule and found the roots -4, -1, and 3
x+ 4= 0 → x = -4
x+1 = 0 → x = -1
x-3 = 0 → x = 3