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jeka57 [31]
3 years ago
15

"Blast it!" said David Wilson, president of Teledex Company. "We’ve just lost the bid on the Koopers job by $3,000. It seems we’

re either too high to get the job or too low to make any money on half the jobs we bid."
Teledex Company manufactures products to customers’ specifications and operates a job order costing system. Manufacturing overhead cost is applied to jobs on the basis of direct labor cost.
The following estimates were made at the beginning of the year:

Department
Fabricating Machining Assembly Total Plant
Direct labor $ 209,000 104,500 313,500 627,000 Manufacturing-
overhead $ 365,750 418,000 94,050 877,800

Jobs require varying amounts of work in the three departments. The Koopers job, for example, would have required manufacturing costs in the three departments as follows:

Department
Fabricating Machining Assembly Total Plant
Direct materials $ 3,900 200 2,300 6,400
Direct labor $ 4,600 500 7,100 12,200
Manufacturing overhead ? ? ? ?

The company uses a plantwide overhead rate to apply manufacturing overhead cost to jobs.
Required:

(1) Assuming use of a plantwide overhead rate:
a. Compute the rate for the current year.
b. Determine the amount of manufacturing overhead cost that would have been applied to the Koopers job.

(2) Suppose that instead of using a plantwide overhead rate, the company had used a separate predetermined overhead rate in each department.
Under these conditions:
(a) Compute the rate for each department for the current year.
(b) Determine the amount of manufacturing overhead cost that would have been applied to the Koopers job.

(3) Assume that it is customary in the industry to bid jobs at 150% of total manufacturing cost (direct materials, direct labor, and applied overhead).
(a) What was the company's bid price on the Koopers job if a plantwide overhead rate had been used to apply overhead cost?
(b) What would the bid price have been if departmental overhead rates had been used to apply overhead cost?
Business
1 answer:
lara31 [8.8K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: 27,000

Explanation:

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Vargis Corporation has a machining capacity of 217,000 hours per year. Utilization of capacity is normally 85%; it has been as l
ivanzaharov [21]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Machine hours available at different capacity utilizatiion

at 30% = 217000*30% = 65100

at 90% = 217000*90% = 195300

at 85% = 217000*85% =184450

PER HOUR RATE OF COST A AT 90% CAPACITY

Irrespective of capacity utilization fixed cost will remain same

at different capacity utilization cost A is $457000, so that it is Fixed cost

Per hour rate = $457000/195300 hrs

= 2.34 per hour

COST B AT 30% CAPACITY

per hour rate of cost B is remains same in both 30% and 90%

per unit or per hour variable cost will be same at different capacity only if it is Variable cost

So that Cost B at 30% capacity can be calculated as follows

= 12.5*65,100hrs

=$813,750

COSTS THAT WILL INCUR AT 85% CAPACITY UTILIZATION

Cost A = $457,000 (as fixed cost will remain same)

Cost B = $12.5*184450 hrs  

= $2,305,625 (as variable cost rate per hour will remain same)

Cost C:

As it semi-variable cost we have to find out fixed cost within that

for that first we have to calculate variable cost per hour

VC/hr = Change in Variable cost / Change in machine hours

=(1,347,000-765,000) / (195300-65100)

=582000 / 130200

=$4.47

so variable cost at 30% =4.47*65100

=$290,997

variable cost at 90% = 4.47*195300

= $872,991

So fixed cost of C = Total cost of C - Variable cost of

at 30% capacity = 765000 - 290997

= 474003

( checking correctness) at 90% = 1,347,000 - 872991

=47009 (approx)

So, COST C AT 85% capacity utilization

=variable cost + fixed cost

=(4.47*184450hrs) + 474009

=824491.5 + 474009

=$1,298,500.5

TOTAL COST AT 85% CAPACITY UTILIZATION

=cost A+ cost B+ cost C

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Answer:

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Explanation:

Calculation for what will be the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after the year-end adjustment to record bad debt expense

Using this formula

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