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Rama09 [41]
3 years ago
12

On January 1, 2014, Fishbone Corporation sold a building that cost $260,300 and that had accumulated depreciation of $105,700 on

the date of sale. Fishbone received as consideration a $249,400 non-interest-bearing note due on January 1, 2017. There was no established exchange price for the building, and the note had no ready market. The prevailing rate of interest for a note of this type on January 1, 2014, was 9%. At what amount should the gain from the sale of the building be reported? (Round factor values to 5 decimal places, e.g. 1.25124 and final answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 458,581.)
The amount of gain should be reported


$



On January 1, 2014, Fishbone Corporation purchased 330 of the $1,000 face value, 9%, 10-year bonds of Walters Inc. The bonds mature on January 1, 2024, and pay interest annually beginning January 1, 2015. Fishbone purchased the bonds to yield 11%. How much did Fishbone pay for the bonds?
Business
1 answer:
Drupady [299]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1. The amount of gain should be reported: $37,983

2. The answer is $291,131

Explanation:

1.

The actual consideration's receipt is the present value of the cash flow from the note which is calculated as 249,400 / ( 1+9%)^3 = $192,582.5599

The Net book value of asset = Original cost - accumulated depreciation = 260,300 - 105,700 = $154,600

=> Gain on sales = $192,582.5599 - $154,600 = $37,983

2.

To determine the amount needs to paid out for the purchase, determine the price per stock first.

The stock price will be determined as the present value of cash flows from bonds, discounted at yield to maturity.

We have: Annual coupon payment = 1,000 x 9% = $90

=> Stock price = (90/11%) x ( 1 - 1.11^-10) + 1,000/1.11^10 = 882.21536

=> Amount need to be paid for the purchase = stock price x bond purchased = 882.21536 x 330 = $291,131

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Universal Foods issued 10% bonds, dated January 1, with a face amount of $260 million on January 1, 2018. The bonds mature on De
kondaur [170]

Answer:

The bonds were issued at $220,879,628.13

This is lower than the face value to compensate for the lower coupon payment.

cash               220,879,628.13   debit

discount on BP  39,120,371.87   debit

   bonds payable      260,000,000 credit

--to record the issuance of the bonds--

Interest expense 13,252,777.69 debit

Discoun on BP               252,777.69 credit

 cash          13,000,000      credit

--to record the first interest payment--

Interest expense 13,267,944.35 debit

        Discount on BP                267,944.35 credit

 Cash          13,000,000     credit

--to record second interest payment--

Interest expense 13,539,156.67 debit

Discount on BP              539,156.67 credit

cash                   13,000,000.00 credit

--to record Dec 31st, 2025 payment--

Explanation:

To determinate the price we will solve for the present value of the coupon payment and maturity at the market rate of %12

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment:

260,000,000 x 10% x 1/2 =13,000,000.000

time 20 years x 2 payment per year 40

yield to maturity  12% / 2 = 6%

13000000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.06)^{-40} }{0.06} = PV\\

PV $195,601,859.3298

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   260,000,000.00

time   40.00

rate  0.06

\frac{260000000}{(1 + 0.06)^{40} } = PV  

PV   25,277,768.80

PV c $195,601,859.3298

PV m  $25,277,768.8042

Total $220,879,628.1340

For the journal entries, we will multiply this current market price of the bonds by the market rate (YTM) the difference between this and the actual cash obligation generate by the bond is the amortization of the discount.

<u>first interest payment </u>

$220,879,628.13 x 6% = 13,252,777.69

less actual cash outlay:  13,000,000

amortization                          252,777.69

<u>second interest payment</u>

($220,879,628.13- $252,777.69) x 6% = 13,267,944.35

less actual cash outlay:                      <u>     13,000,000.00</u>

amortization                                                   267,944.35

December 31st, 2025:

This will be payment 14th

after building the schedule until that date we got:

8 0
3 years ago
Apple is considering increasing the amount of money it spends on product development.
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7 0
3 years ago
Because an organization has limited influence on market growth rate, its main alternative for moving an SBU on the portfolio ana
svetlana [45]

Answer:

The correct answer is inject cash into it.

Explanation:

Every day, central banks lend money to private banks through auctions. The extraordinary thing about these new liquidity injections starring the European Central Bank or the US Federal Reserve is not so much the operation itself, as the situation in which they occur.

In this case, problems arise when, due to distrust, banks do not lend money to each other, operations that are common when the system is working properly.

With extraordinary placements, the central entities replace that lack of funds that private banks have not been able to obtain from their partners and, at the same time, at a cheaper price - at a lower interest rate.

6 0
3 years ago
1. B. Journalize the transactions for May, starting on Page 20 of the journal.*
jeyben [28]

Answer:

Rent Expense (Dr.) $5,000

Cash (Cr.) $5,000

Inventory (Dr.) $35,380

Accounts Payable Martin Co. (Cr.) $35,380

Accounts Receivable Korman Co. (Dr.) $62,000

Sales (Cr.) $62,000

Cost of Goods Sold (Dr.) $48,500

Inventory (Cr.) $48,500

Explanation:

Advertising Expense (Dr.) $21,800

Cash (Cr.) $ 21,800

Cash (Dr.) $62,000

Accounts Receivable Korman Co. (Cr.) $62,000

Customer Refund Payable (Dr.) $31,500

Cash (Cr.) $31,500

Sales Salaries Expense (Dr.) $12,000

Office Salaries Expense (Dr.) $ 38,000

Cash (Cr.) $50,000

Store Supplies Expense (Dr.) $2,200

Cash (Cr.) $2,200

8 0
3 years ago
According to the theory of liquidity preference, if the supply of real money balances exceeds the demand for real money balances
Sedbober [7]

Answer:

Sell interest-earning assets in order to obtain non-interest-bearing money

Explanation:

The liquidity preference theory states that investors prefer cash or highly liquid assets to long term assets that carry high risk.

When investors obtain long term assets the charge higher interest rates or premium in order to mitigate associated risk.

In this scenario when the supply of money is higher than demand, there is abundance of non interest bearing money that is highly liquid.

According to the liquidity preference theory investors will sell their interest bearing assets and go for assets with high liquidity (non Interest bearing money)

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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