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Marina CMI [18]
3 years ago
5

99 pts ON THE LINE PLZ HELP

Mathematics
1 answer:
laila [671]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

38/51  ft

Step-by-step explanation:

uncut board - cut piece = board left

10/12 - 3/34 = board left

first lets simplify the fractions

10/12   divide by 2 on top and bottom

5/6

5/6 - 3/34 = board left

we need to get a common denominator 204

5/6 * 34/34 - 3/34 * 6/6 =

170/204 - 18/204

152/204

we can simplify by dividing the top and bottom by 4

38/51

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163,160,157,... find the 42nd term
UNO [17]

Answer:

It's 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Arithmetic Sequence.

Common Difference:

160−163=−3

157−160=−3

d=−3

Explicit Formula:

an=a1+(n−1)d

​

a42​=163+(41)(−3)

a42 = 40

6 0
3 years ago
Please help with this question
My name is Ann [436]

In a symmetric histogram, you have the same number of points to the left and to the right of the median. An example of this is the distribution {1,2,3,4,5}. We have 3 as the median and there are two items below the median (1,2) and two items above the median (4,5).

If we place another number into this distribution, say the number 5, then we have {1,2,3,4,5,5} and we no longer have symmetry. We can fix this by adding in 1 to get {1,1,2,3,4,5,5} and now we have symmetry again. Think of it like having a weight scale. If you add a coin on one side, then you have to add the same weight to the other side to keep balance.

4 0
3 years ago
Express the function h(x)=(x+4)^5 in the form of f of g ( f o g). If f(x)=x^5 , find the function of g(x).
Bess [88]

Answer:

I DONT KNOW DO YOU WANT TO BE MY FRIEND

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
mixer [17]

Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

3 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ASAP! DUE TOMORROW!
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

:)

Step-by-step explanation:

            28

          /      \

       2          14

                  /    \

                2       7

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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