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Alenkasestr [34]
3 years ago
14

Quiz during the class. Calculate the WACC which represents the "hurdle rate" for a typical project with average risk using midpo

int of the range of the marginal cost of common equity using retained earnings or new earnings. Data: A 15-year, 12% coupon, semiannual payment non-callable bonds sell for $1,153.72. New bonds will be privately placed with no flotation cost. A 10%, $1,000 par value, annually dividend, perpetual preferred stock sells for $1,111. Both an existing common stock and a new common stock issue, which incurs a flotation cost of 15% of the proceeds, sells for $50. D1 = $4.3995 and g = 5%. b = 1.2; rRF = 7%; RPM = 6%. Bond-Yield Risk Premium = 4%. Target capital structure: 30% debt, 10% preferred, 60% common equity. Tax rate is 40%. HINTS: Use the formula, WACC = wdrd(1 – T) + wprp + wcrs
Business
1 answer:
aleksklad [387]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a.Year   Cashflow    [email protected]%      PV           [email protected]%     PV

               $                                 $                                  $

  0        (1,000)           1           (1,000)           1          (1,000)

1-15          72             11.1184    800          7.6061        548

15         1,000          0.5553    555.3      0.2394        239

                                  NPV      355.3              NPV    213                    

Kd = LR     + NPV1/NPV1 + NPV2    x (HR – LR)

Kd = 4       + 355.3/355.3 + 218   x (10 – 4)

Kd = 4       + 355.3/573.3 x 6

Kd = 7.72%    

b. Kp = D/Po

   Kp = $100/$1,111

  Kp = 0.09 = 9%

c. Ke = D1/Po (1 – FC)  + g

  Ke = $4.3995/$50(1-0.15) + 0.05

  Ke = $4.3995/$42.50 + 0.05

 Ke = 0.1535 = 15.35%

WACC = Wdrd(1 – T)  + Wprp + Were

WACC = 0.3(7.72)(1-0.4) + 0.1(9) + 0.6(15.35)

WACC = 1.39 + 0.9 + 9.15

WACC = 11.44%                    

Explanation:

In this case, we need to calculate cost of debt, cost of preference shares and cost of equity. Cost of debt is calculated based on internal rate of return. Cost of preferred stock is the ratio of dividend paid to the market price. Cost of equity is a function of D1 divided by current market price after floatation cost plus growth rate. WACC is equal to cost of each source multiplied by respective weights.

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Answer:

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Liang Company began operations on January 1, 2017. During its first two years, the company completed a number of transactions in
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Answer:

Liang Company

Journal entries to record Liang’s 2017 and 2018 summarized transactions and its year-end adjustments to record bad debts expense (using the perpetual inventory system and applying allowance method for accounts receivable)

1. 2017 Journal entries:

Debit Accounts Receivable with $1,351,700

Credit Sales Account with $1,351,700

To record sales on credit, terms n/30.

Debit Cost of Goods Sold with $981,800

Credit Inventory Account with $981,800

To record cost of goods sold.

Debit Uncollectible Expense Account with $2,150

Credit Accounts Receivable with $2,150

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Credit Accounts Receivable with $670,400

To record cash received on account.

December 31:

Debit Uncollectible Expense Account with $20,374.50

Credit Allowance for Uncollectible Account with $20,374.50

To record 3% allowance for accounts receivable balance.

2. 2018 Journal entries:

Debit Accounts Receivable with $1,586,800

Credit Sales Account with $1,586,800

To record sales on credit, terms n/30.

Debit Cost of Goods Sold with $1,326,300

Credit Inventory Account with $1,326,300

To record cost of goods sold.

Debit Allowance for Uncollectible Account with $25,300

Credit Accounts Receivable with $25,300

To write off uncollectible accounts receivable.

Debit Cash with $1,182,900

Credit Accounts Receivable with $1,182,900

To record cash received on account.

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Debit Uncollectible Expense Account with $36,658

Credit Allowance for Uncollectible Account with $36,658

To bring the allowance for accounts receivable balance to 3%.

Explanation:

1. Using the perpetual inventory system where transactions are recorded to inventory immediately and not at period-end, the sales transactions will reduce the balance of the inventory account with the cost of sales and increase the cost of sales with the same amount.  The Sales account is increased by sales value while the Accounts Receivable is also increased with the same amount.

2. The write-off is initially charged to the uncollectible expense account directly in 2017 but subsequently, it will be debited to the Allowance of Uncollectible account, applying the allowance method.

3. The perpetual inventory system, inventory transactions are recognized in the inventory and cost of goods sold accounts immediately and not at period-end like the periodic inventory system, which waits until inventory count to recognize transactions.

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Which banker would a software company most likely visit for help to raise large amounts of capital to acquire, or buy out anothe
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Answer:

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Explanation:

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2 years ago
Adams, Incorporated would like to add a new line of business to its existing retail business. The new line of business will be t
Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

machine's cost = $200,000 + $10,000 + $30,000 = $240,000

useful life of 4 years

salvage value of $25,000, depreciable value = $215,000

MACRS 3-year asset:

  • 0.333 x $215,000 = $71,595
  • 0.445 x $215,000 = $95,675
  • 0.148 x $215,000 = $31,820
  • 0.074 x $215,000 = $15,910

incremental sales of 1,250 units per year, during 4 years:

  • 1,250 x $200 = $250,000
  • 1,250 x $206 = $257,500
  • 1,250 x $212.18 = $265,225
  • 1,250 x $218.55 = $273,188

incremental COGS of 1,250 units per year, during 4 years:

  • 1,250 x $100 = $125,000
  • 1,250 x $103 = $128,750
  • 1,250 x $106.09 = $132,613
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net working capital increases by 12% of sales revenue = $250,000 x 12% = $30,000

WACC = 10%

tax rate = 40%

initial investment = $240,000 (machine cost) + $30,000 (working capital) = $270,000

  • net cash year 1 = [($250,000 - $125,000 - $71,595) x (1 - 40%)] + $71,595 = $103,638
  • net cash year 2 = [($257,500 - $128,750 - $95,675) x (1 - 40%)] + $95,675 = $115,520
  • net cash year 3 = [($265,225 - $136,588 - $31,820) x (1 - 40%)] + $31,820 = $92,295
  • net cash year 4 = [($273,188 - $136,588 - $15,910) x (1 - 40%)] + $15,910 = $88,324 + $25,000 (salvage value) + $30,000 (net working capital) = $143,324

to calculate the present value:

PV = $103,638/1.1 + $115,520/1.1² + $92,295/1.1³ + $143,324/1.1⁴ = $94,216 + $95,471 + $69,343 + $97,892 = $356,922

NPV = $356,922 - $270,000 = $86,922

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