Answer:
48in
Step-by-step explanation:
4x6=24
× 2
____
48in
You have to do 8x1/4 to get your answer. So the answer is 8/4 which simplified to 2. So Teesavis correct.
Answer:
It’s the 3 one
Step-by-step explanation:
Replace the second equation y=3x+4 into the first one:
2(3x+4)+5x=30
Now solve for x:
6x+8+5x=30
11x=30-8
11x=22
x=22/11
x=2
Finally, replace x=2 into y=3x+4
y=3*2+4
y=6+4 = 10
So the anwer is x=2, y=10
Probability of success (showing up) = 1-0.05=0.95 is constant and known.
Trials are Bernoulli (show or no show).
Trials are independent and random (assumed from context)
Number of trials is known, n=160.
All being satisfied, we can then model with binomial distribution, where
P(x)=C(n,x)p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where C(n,x)=n!/(x!(n-x)!)
Here we look for
P(X<=155)=P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+...+P(X=155)
=0.9061461 (using technology, or add up 156 values calculated, or read from binomial distribution table).
Alternatively, the normal approximation can be used, when n is large.
mean=np=160*0.95=152
standard deviation=sqrt(np(1-p))=2.75681
Apply continuity correction, x=155.5
Z=(155.5-152)/2.75681=1.26958
P(z<=Z)=0.89788 (read from normal distribution tables)
Error=(0.89788-0.9061461)*100%=-0.83%
The approximation is considered good considering p=0.95 is quite skewed, but compensated by n>>50.