Answer:
Disaster recovery plan
Explanation:
Disaster recovery plan (DRP), it is a plan or approach which is structured as well as documented, states how the organization or business could resume work after the unplanned incident happen.
It is the vital part of the business as depend on the functioning of IT, it aims to resolve the loss of data and also recover the system functionality so that the could perform well after incident.
So, DRP, could help in recognizing the steps required to restore the failed system in the business.
Answer:
The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested
IRR can be calculated using a financial calcuator
Cash flow in year 0 = $-1.25 million.
Cash flow in year 1 = $210,000
Cash flow in year 2 to 5 = $350,000
IRR = 8.51%
The firm shouldn't purchase the machine because the IRR is less than the required minimum
To find the IRR using a financial calculator:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button
Answer: d. more coffee and fewer football tickets
Explanation:
MU/P refers to the marginal utility gained per dollar of an alternative and rationale consumers are always expected to maximise their utility by picking alternatives that give them more utility as opposed to less.
The MU/P for coffee is 20 whilst that of football tickets in 10. This means that more utility is gained from getting more coffee as opposed to football tickets. The action that would maximise utility would therefore be one where the consumer gets more coffee and fewer football tickets.
Answer:
The lump sum payment = $23,585.49
Explanation:
The winning lottery is an example of an advanced annuity. <em>An advanced annuity is a series of cash flows that occurs for a certain number of years with the first cash flow occurring now.</em>
The first cash flow is represents one out of the five, so the balance is a four-year annuity.
So we can work out the present value of the annuity for the last four years as follows:
PV = (1 - (1+r)^(-n)/r ) × Annual cash flow
r = 3%=0.03, n = 4, Annual cash flow = 5000
PV = (1- ((1+0.03)^(-4))/0.03) × 5,000
= 3.7170 × 5,000
=$ 18,585.49
The lump sum payment = PV of the first payment + PV of the four year annuity
The lump sum payment = $5000 + $ 18,585.49
= $23,585.49
