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irga5000 [103]
3 years ago
14

4. There are a variety of receptors and second messenger systems in cells that in many cases exhibit cross-talk with each other

(the activation of one can influence the behavior of another). Given this fact understanding how ligand activated receptors works is not as easy as presented in your book or in class. a. There are a number of different ligands that interact with their respective receptors. How do receptors for testosterone, ferro transferrin and Fibroblast Growth Factor differ from each other with respect to the location and function of their receptors
Biology
1 answer:
frutty [35]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

These 3 receptors are different from each other. They do differ from each other by their location and function.

1. Testosterone receptor :  It is an Androgenic receptor

2. Ferrotransferrin receptor :  It acts as an element-binding protein which is iron responsive.

3. Fibroblast growth factor :  It acts as a growth factor.

Explanation:

1. Testosterone :

Location- Xq 11-12 in the X chromosome.

Function-  

  1. maintains male skeletal integrity by osteoblast and osteocytes.
  2. maintains female sexual, somatic and behavior.
  3. develops male sexual characters.

2. Ferrotransferrin :

Location- chromosome 3q21

Function-

  1. intakes iron in the cell.
  2. maintains the cellular iron equilibrium.
  3. post-transcriptional modification.  

3. Fibroblast (growth) :

Location- chromosome 4p16.3

Function-

  1. helps in bone development.
  2. helps in bone growth maintenance by ossification.

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Each of the four pedigrees that follow represents a human family within which a genetic disease is segregating. Affected individ
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 Answer:

<u> The following four traits are -: </u>

  • <u>Pedigree 1 -</u> A recessive trait (autosomal recessive)  is expressed by pedigree 1.
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Explanation:

<u>Explaination of each pedigree chart</u>-

  • Pedigree 1 demonstrates the <u>recessive trait </u>since their children have been affected by two unaffected individuals. If the characteristics were X-linked, in order to have an affected daughter, I-1 would have to be affected. X^A In this, both parents are autosomal recessive trait carriers, so the child will be affected by a 1/4 (aa)
  • <u> Recessive inheritance</u> is defined by <u>Pedigree 2</u>. This is<u> X-related inheritance as autosomal recessive</u> inheritance has already been accounted for in part 1. This inference is confirmed by evidence showing that the father (I-1) is unaffected and that only the sons exhibit the characteristic in generation II, suggesting that the mother must be the carrier. The individual I-2 is a carrier for this X-linked trait. A typical  Xa chromosome is attached to the unaffected father (I-1), so the chance of carrier II-5 is 1/2. Probability of an affected son = 1/2 (probability II-5 is a carrier) x 1/2 (probability II -5 contributes (X^A) x 1/2 (probability of Y from father II-6) = 1/8. An affected daughter's likelihood is 0 because a typical X^A must be contributed by II-6.
  • The inheritance of the<u> dominant trait</u> is demonstrated by <u>Pedigree 3 </u>because affected children still have affected parents (remember that all four diseases are rare). The trait must be <u>autosomal dominant</u> because it is passed down to the son by the affected father. There is a 1/2 risk that the heterozygous mother (II-5) would pass on mutant alleles to a child of either sex for an autosomal dominant feature.
  • <u>Pedigree 4</u> is an <u>X-linked dominant function</u> characterized by the transmission to all of his daughters from the affected father but none of his son. On the mutant X chromosome, the father (I-1) passes on to all his daughters and none of his sons. As seen by his normal phenotype, II-6 therefore does not bear the mutation. An affected child's likelihood is 0.    

In the question the pedigree chart was missing ,hence it is given below.

     

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