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lora16 [44]
3 years ago
7

If KC = 31, what is KN?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alex3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

KN = 74

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: KC= 31 , KC = 2x + 10 and CN = 4x + 1

We have to find the KN.

Since, KC = 31

also KC = 2x + 10

Comparing both we get,

31 = 2x + 10

2x = 21

x=\frac{21}{2}

Also, CN = 4x + 1 = 4(\frac{21}{2})+1=43

Thus, KN = KC + CN

KN = 31 + 43 = 74

Thus, KN = 74

Olegator [25]3 years ago
4 0
KC= 31-10= 21
21÷2=10.5
KN= 10.5×4=42
42+1=43
KN=43
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There is a 30 percent chance that A can fix her busted computer. If A cannot, then there is a 40 percent chance that her friend
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

(a) 0.70

(b) 0.40

Step-by-step explanation:

Mutually-exclusive events are those events which cannot occur together.

Consider that events X and Y are mutually exclusive.

P (X and Y) = 0

Here the two events can be defined as follows:

A = A can fix the busted computer

B = B can fix the busted computer

The information provided are as follows:

P (A) = 0.30

P (B) = 0.40

If A cannot, then there is a chance that her friend B can fix it.

The above statement suggest that the events A and B are mutually exclusive, i.e. if A can fix the computer then B does not have to and if cannot then only B will fix it.

That is, P (A and B) = 0.

(a)

Compute the probability it will be fixed by either A or B as follows:

P (A or B) = P (A) + P (B) - P (A and B)

                = 0.30 + 0.40 - 0

                = 0.70

Thus, the probability it will be fixed by either A or B is 0.70.

(b)

Compute the probability that if it is fixed it will be fixed by B as follows:

P (not A and B) = P (B) - P (A and B)

                         = 0.40 - 0

                         = 0.40

Thus, the probability that if it is fixed it will be fixed by B is 0.40.

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3 years ago
An on-the-job injury occurs once every 10 days on
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<h3>What is probability?</h3>

It is defined as the ratio of the number of favourable outcomes to the total number of outcomes, in other words, the probability is the number that shows the happening of the event.

We know the exponential distribution is given by;

\rm P(X < t)=1-e^{-\dfrac{1}{\mu}t}

The probability that the next on-the-job injury will occur within 10 days:

\rm P(X < 10)=1-e^{-\dfrac{1}{10}10}

P(X< 10) = 0.632

The probability that the next on-the-job injury will occur within 20 days:

\rm P(X < 5)=1-e^{-\dfrac{1}{10}5}

P(X< 5) = 0.393

The probability that the next on-the-job injury will occur within 1 days:

\rm P(X < 1)=1-e^{-\dfrac{1}{10}1}

P(X< 1) = 0.095

Thus, the probability that the next on-the-job injury will occur within 10, 5, and 1 day are 0.632, 0.393, and 0.095

Learn more about the probability here:

brainly.com/question/11234923

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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bezimeni [28]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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So then the equation could be:

S= 2(3.14)10×13

Multiply them all together and you get 816.4^^

6 0
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