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marusya05 [52]
3 years ago
11

A restaurant sells pizza at a rate of $13.57/slice. Expenses for the restaurant include raw material for pizza at $8.57 per slic

e, $172.00 as monthly rental and $61.00 monthly as insurance. How many slices should the restaurant sell in a month to break even?
Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The restaurant need to sell 46.6 slices (47 slices)

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The restaurant sells pizza at a rate of $13.57/slice. Expenses for the restaurant include raw material for pizza at $8.57 per slice, $172.00 as monthly rental and $61.00 monthly as insurance.

To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:

Break-even point= fixed costs/ contribution margin

Break-even point= (172 + 61) / (13.57 - 8.57)

Break-even point= 46.6 slices

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Concord Company sells many products. Gizmo is one of its popular items. Below is an analysis of the inventory purchases and sale
Nitella [24]

Answer:

the numbers are missing, so I looked for a similar question:

Purchases Sales Units Unit Cost Units Selling Price/Unit

3/1 Beginning inventory 100 $40

3/3 Purchase 60 $50

3/4 Sales 60 $80

3/10 Purchase 200 $55

3/16 Sales 70 $90

3/19 Sales 90 $90

3/25 Sales 60 $90

3/30 Purchase 40 $60

the requirements are:

calculate COGS and ending inventory under FIFO, LIFO and weighted average.

since this company uses the periodic inventory level we must first determine the total cost of goods available for sale:

3/1 Beginning inventory 100 $40

3/3 Purchase 60 $50

3/10 Purchase 200 $55

3/30 Purchase 40 $60

total goods available for sale = 400 units, at a total cost of $20,400

total units sold = 60 + 70 + 90 + 60 = 280 units

ending inventory  = 120 units

under FIFO:

ending inventory = (40 x $60) + (80 x $55) = $6,800

COGS = $20,400 - $6,800 = $13,600

under LIFO:

ending inventory = (100 x $40) + (20 x $50) = $5,000

COGS = $20,400 - $5,000 = $15,400

under weighted average:

ending inventory = ($20,400 / 400) x 120 = $6,120

COGS = $20,400 - $6,120 = $14,280

3 0
3 years ago
PB13.
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

Journal entry for each transaction is given below.

Materials were purchased on account for $5,429.

Debit Material Account      $5,429

Credit Payable                    $5,429

Materials were requisitioned to begin work on Job C15 in the amount of $2,500.

Debit WIP JOB C15 Account      $2,500

Credit Material Account             $2,500

Direct labor expense for Job C15 was $4,250.

Debit WIP JOB C15 Account     $4,250

Credit Payroll Account              $4,250

Actual overhead was incurred on account for $5,385.

Debit Factory Overhead Control Account   $5,385

Credit Expense payable/cash                      $5,385

Factory overhead was charged to Job C15 at the rate of 200% direct labor.

Debit WIP JOB C15 Account                                     $8,500

Credit Applied Factory overhead Account              $8,500

Job C15 was transferred to finished goods at $15,250.

Debit Finished Good Account    $15,250

Credit WIP JOB C15 Account      $15,250

Job C15 was sold on account for $28,000

(2 entries will be passed at this stage)

Debit Cost of Good Sold                $15,250

Credit Finished Good Account      $15,250

Debit Receivable/Cash Account   $28,000

Credit Sales                                    $28,000    

4 0
3 years ago
The following events occurred for Favata Company: a. Received $13,000 cash from owners and issued stock to them. b. Borrowed $10
Vladimir [108]

Answer and Explanation:

The indication of the account, amount and the direction of the effect are as follows

As we know that

Accounting equation is

Total assets = Total liabilities + stockholder equity

Based on this, the indication and the direction aare as follows

        Assets                  =              Liabilities            +            Stockholders' Equity

A)        $13,000              =                   0                    +                 $13,000

It increased both the assets and the stockholder equity i.e capital

B)        $10,000                 =                $10,000        +                     0

It increased both the assets and the liabilities

C)       $1,100                   =                $1,100                +                     0

It increased both the assets and the liabilities

D)    +$18,000 -$1,600       =             $16,400            +                     0

It increased the land by $18,000 and decreased the cash by $1,600 and at the same time it increased the liabilities by $16,400

E)      +$6,000 -$1,600      =                  $4,400              +                    0          

It increased the equipment by $6,000 and decreased the cash by $1,600 and at the same time it also increased the liabilities by $4,400

Total   $44,900                 =                  $31,900              +                 $13,000

4 0
3 years ago
Companies transmit over the internet because the internet ________.
Lera25 [3.4K]
<span>the answer to the question is : is inexpensive</span>
8 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
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