Answer:
Explanation:
United States is producing 200 tons of hamburgers and 60 tons of tacos.
United States' opportunity cost for producing 1 ton of hamburgers
= 
= 0.3
United States' opportunity cost for producing 60 tons of tacos.
= 
= 3.33
So we see that US has a lower opportunity cost in producing hamburgers, so it has a comparative advantage in producing hamburgers.
Mexico is producing 40 tons of hamburgers and 50 tons of tacos.
Mexico's opportunity cost of producing a ton of hamburgers
= 
= 1.25
Mexico's opportunity cost of producing a ton of tacos
= 
= 0.8
So we see that Mexico has a lower opportunity cost in producing tacos, so it has a comparative advantage in making tacos.
Since US specializes in making hamburgers, it will produce 200 tons of hamburgers and 0 tons of tacos.
Mexico specializes in making tacos, it will produce 50 tons of tacos and 0 tons of hamburgers.
I Think The answer is d I hope it helps My friend Message Me if I’m wrong and I’ll change My answer and fix it for you
<span> B. When used, both take money directly out of a bank account.</span>
Answer:
Computer Inc should produce and sell 500 charging cords since their contribution margin is the highest, resulting in a gross profit of $8 per unit x 500 units = $4,000. And produce and sell 650 flash drives with a contribution margin of $7 per unit which results in a gross profit = $7 x 650 units = $4,550.
Explanation:
Companies must focus on producing and selling the products that generate them the largest profit.
In order to properly tackle this problem, we must understand the relationship between the nominal annual rate and real (effective) annual rate.
To do this:
-First you take the nominal rate, divide by the number of times it's compounded (converted) per year.
-Then, add one to that number, and raise that number to the power of how many times you compound per year.
Here is the method in practice:
First 3 Years:
Nominal rate= 2% ÷ 12 times/yr = 0.001667
Effective rate = 1.001667 ^12 = 1.020184
Next 2 Years (Discounting)
3% ÷ 2/yr = .015
1.015 ^ 2 = 1.061364
Next 4 years (Interest)
.042 ÷ .5 (once every 2 years) = .084
1.084 ^ (1/2) = 1.041153
The last 3 years are already expressed as an effective rate, so we don't need to convert them. The annual rate is:
1.058
I kept the 1 in the numbers (1.058 instead of 5.8% for example) so that it's easier to find the final number
Take every relevant number and raise it to the power of the number of years it's compounded for. For discounting, raise it to a negative power.
First 3 years: 1.020184 ^ 3 = 1.061784
Next 2 years: 1.030225 ^ -2 = .942184
Next 4 years: 1.041163 ^ 4 = 1.175056
Last 3 years: 1.058 ^ -3 = .84439
Multiply these numbers (include all decimals when you do this calculation)
1.062 * .942 * 1.175 * .844 = .992598
This is our final multiplier to find the effect on our principal:
.992598 * 2,480 = 2461.64
Answer is 2461.64
