A 45-year-old man with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation presents to the ED with acute onset of severe pain and parest

Question

3 years ago

14

A 45-year-old man with a history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation presents to the ED with acute onset of severe pain and parest

hesias in his right calf. On exam, you note lower extremity pallor and an absent dorsalis pedis pulse. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?A) Arterial atheroembolismB) Arterial thromboembolismC) Arterial thrombosisD) Arterial vasospasm

Biology

1 answer:

marta [7] · Answer 1 · 2022-06-30T23:53:46+03:00

Answer: Arterial thromboembolism

Explanation:

Arterial embolism can be defined as the sudden hinderance of the blood flow to an organ or body part due to the embolus which to the wall of the artery.

This clot can lead to more serious in the future. The arterial embolism occurs due to the consumption of food rich in fat and cholesterol.

It is the main cause of the myocardial infraction and vasoconstriction.