The primary source of fuel in South America is petroleum.
Answer:
<u>Allocative efficiency </u>
Explanation:
Marginal benefit refers to the extra satisfaction derived from purchase of an extra unit of a good or a service.
Marginal cost refers to the extra cost incurred when an additional unit of a good or a service is produced.
When marginal cost is equal to the marginal benefit, it is the most efficient situation wherein optimal blend of commodities is produced.
Allocative efficiency refers to producers providing that blend of goods which are most desired by the society at the optimal level of production.
Answer:
A. inelastic
Explanation:
Inelastic demand is when people buy about same amount whether price drops or rises.
Even with the higher changes in the prices in the cinema, there is not considerable impact on Movie going audience. Also, addition to it, people go to cinemas at evening and weekend shows more than daytime shows or weekday shows even the tickets have price higher.
<u>This shows that the inelastic nature of movie ticket demand.</u>
Answer:
1.875 years
Explanation:
The payback period is the period required for a project to repay its initial investments.
Pay back period = initial investments/ initial investments
In this case: Initial investments: $ 1,500,000.00
cash flows :
Year initial invest Accumulated Depreciation
0 ( 1,500,000.00) (1,500,00.00
1 800,000 800,000
2 700,000 700,000/800,00
Payback period = 1 year + 700,000/800,000
= 1.875 years
Answer:
In order to find Gillette's value of a share we need to use the multi stage model and find what will its dividend be at the end of the 5th year
The dividend of the first 5 years can be calculated by multiplying the previous one by 1.12
Dividend 1 year from now = 0.65
Dividend 2 years from now= 0.65*1.12=0.728
Dividend 3 years from now=0.728*1.12=0.81536
Dividend 4 years from now= 0.81536*1.12= 0.913203
Dividend 5 years from now=0.91320.*1.12= 1.022788
After this the growth level will be 2% so we can find the 6th years dividend by multiplying 1.022788 by 1.02 and we will get 1.043243
Now we can calculate the share price will be after 5 years by using the DDM
D1/(R-G)
D1= 1.0432
R= 0.08
G= 0.02
1.0432/0.06= 17.38
Now in order to find the current price we need to discount this price to find the present value we can do this by using its cost of capital as the discount rate.
17.38/1.08^5
=12.98735
Explanation: