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user100 [1]
3 years ago
15

The Exam Fun Co. had Accounts Receivable of $100,000 and a credit balance of $2,000 in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts on 12/31/

10. The company estimates that 5% of the receivables will not be collected. Which of the following is the correct journal entry for recording the estimate of bad debt expense?A. dr. Bad Debt Expense 3,000 and cr. Allowance for Doubtful accounts 3,000
B. dr. Bad Debt Expense 5,000 and cr. Accounts Receivable 3,000
C. dr. Bad Debt Expense 5,000 and cr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 5,000
D. dr. Bad Debt Expense 7,000 and cr. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 7,000
Business
2 answers:
tekilochka [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The answer is A. dr. Bad Debt Expense with $3,000 and cr. Allowance for Doubtful accounts with $3,000.

Explanation:

The essence of the above entries is to bring the balance for Allowance for Doubtful Accounts to the new estimated 5% of the Accounts Receivable balance of $100,000.

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is an adjustable and contra account to the Accounts Receivable.

Management can use any method: direct write-off and aging analysis to determine the balance sheet figure for the account.  But the entry to be journalized at period end is either a credit (to increase the balance) or a debit (to decrease the balance).

AleksAgata [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A. dr. Bad Debt Expense 3,000 and cr. Allowance for Doubtful accounts 3,000

Explanation:

Bad debt Expense will be calculated using the percentage of debt loss. The expense will be calculated using the account receivable balance.

Closing Value of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be as follow

Closing Balance = $100,000 x 5% = $5,000

As Allowance for Doubtful Accounts already have credit balance of $2,000, we need to adjust the remainder to make the closing balance of Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $5,000 at the year end.

Adjustment Value = $5,000 - $2,000 = $3,000

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On April 30, 2017, Cupidity Corp. purchased for cash all 200 shares of the outstanding common stock of Venality Corp. for $40 pe
just olya [345]

Answer:

$1,350

Explanation:

Goodwill is the Excess of Cash Consideration over the Net Assets taken over. Net Assets taken over are measured at their Fair Market Value instead of Book Values at the Acquisition date.

Where,

Cash Consideration = $8,000

Fair Value of Net Assets Acquired ($6,000 + ) = $6,650

Therefore,

Goodwill = $8,000 - $6,650

               = $1,350

8 0
2 years ago
Explain the reasons why risk management might increase the value of a corporation?
vlada-n [284]

Explanation:

Risk management is to increase a firm ’s profitability;

(1) Raise all use of borrowing by them.

(2) Preserve their optimum budget for resources in accordance.

(3) Reduce potential distress-related expenses.

(4) Make use of their comparable liquidity advantages compared to the individual's liquidity capacity.

7 0
3 years ago
A salesperson is trying to sell you a phone that has 16 GB of memory saying, "that’s enough space to record an hour of high qual
borishaifa [10]

Answer:

The salesperson is not providing any information about what high quality means (resolution of video). Overall the option B is correct.

Explanation:

Firstly, the salesperson is not providing any details of video quality so he lacks here. The second reason that the information is inadequate is calculation is required for the consumption of memory by 720p and 1080p video. The video 720p consume almost below 4 GB for an one hour of video captured by an iphone camera. This means it posses space for 4hrs (16GB/4GB) of video so the option B is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
More Hits Company manufactures aluminum baseball bats that it sells to university athletic departments. It has developed the fol
yuradex [85]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

AP = 4.15

SP = 4.0

SQ = 114000 × 2 = 228000

1. Direct Materials Price

= (AQ × AP) - (AQ × SP)

= (246000 × 4.15) - (246000 × 4.0)

= 1020900 - 984000

= 369000 U

2. Direct Materials Quantity

= (AQ × SP) - (SQ × SP)

where SQ = 114000 × 2 = 228000

= (220000 × 4.0) - (228000 × 4.0)

= 880000 - 912000

= 32000 F

3. Direct Labor Price

= (AH × AR) - (AH × SR)

= (58700 × 9.8) - (58700 × 10)

= 575260 - 587000

= 11740

4. Direct Labor Quantity

= (AH × SR) - (SH × SR)

where, SH = 114000 × ½ = 57000

= (58700 × 10) - (57000 × 10)

= 587000 - 570000

= 17000 U

5. Total Overhead Variances

= 352000 - (57000 × 6)

= 352000 - 342000

= 10000 Unfavorable

Check attachment for further details

8 0
3 years ago
At the break-even point:
OlgaM077 [116]

Answer:

D. Contribution margin would be equal to total fixed costs

Explanation:

As we know that

break even point is the point at which the firm is earning no profit or no loss suffered

In equation, it is

Total cost = Total revenues

In addition,

The contribution margin = Sales - variable expenses

Therefore

The contribution margin = Fixed cost = break even point

If we subtract the contribution margin from the fixed cost the amount should be zero which implies the break even point

5 0
2 years ago
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