Answer:
6.50%
Explanation:
The after-tax cost of the debt is the yield to maturity after having deducted the tax shield which is computed using the formula below:
after-tax cost of debt=pretax cost of debt*(1-tax rate)
pretax cost of debt=yield to maturity=10%
tax rate=35%
The after-tax cost of debt=10%*(1-35%)
The after-tax cost of debt=10%*65%
The after-tax cost of debt=6.50%
Assuming that you wanted to know how to journal this, it would be :
Dec. 31
Debit Credit
Income Summary $ 188,000
Retained Earning $ 188,000
That is false
The court would never do that , but before you would eat , you need to check if this belong to you or not
Answer:
Cash flow year 0 (110,000)
or in other way to express it: a cashoutflow for $110,000
Explanation:
Initial net cahs outflow
this will be the acquisition of the machine cost plus the increase in the working capital for the company
machine cost: all cost necessary for acquire the machien and get it operational
supplier list price 85,000
installation cost <u> 15,000</u>
total cost 100,000
Increase in Working Capital Cost 10,000
As these are cost they are negative so we have a cashouflow
Total cashflow (110,000)
Answer:
C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.
Explanation:
given data
State 1 State 2 State 3
Probability 25% 50% 25%
Spot rate $ 2.50 /£ $ 2.00 /£ $ 1.60 /£
P* £ 1,800 £ 2,250 £ 2,812.50
P $4,500 $4,500 $4,500
solution
company holds portfolio in pound. so to get hedge, they will sell that of the same amount.
we get here average value of the portfolio that is
The average value of the portfolio = £ (0.25*1800 + 0.5*2250 + 0.25*2812.5)
The average value of the portfolio = 2278.13
so correct option is C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.