Number one is more likely to happen.
how likely is it? equally likely as not likely
Answer: C
Step-by-step explanation:
You can solve this by first multiplying both sides of the fraction by the conjugate of the denominator.
In this case, the conjugate is (8 - 2i).
So:

Simplify:

Simplify again, knowing that i^2 = -1

Then, divide both numbers in the numerator by 68 to get your answer.

Answer:
Proof in explanation.
Step-by-step explanation:
I'm going to attempt this by squeeze theorem.
We know that
is a variable number between -1 and 1 (inclusive).
This means that
.
for all value
. So if we multiply all sides of our inequality by this, it will not effect the direction of the inequalities.

By squeeze theorem, if 
and
, then we can also conclude that
.
So we can actually evaluate the "if" limits pretty easily since both are continuous and exist at
.

.
We can finally conclude that
by squeeze theorem.
Some people call this sandwich theorem.
That would be 3.5 b/c it can’t be expressed as a ratio or a simple fraction
Nothing cause she used to have 88 and 20 of them died so yeah nothing remains I guess