Answer:
S
Step-by-step explanation:
...................
Answer:
10 pages
Step-by-step explanation:
386/42=9.1 pages
but you can not have .1 of a page so you add another page.
1/32 because 1/4 is the probability for the first one and then 1/8 for the next one. 4 times 8 = 32 so there is a 1 in 32 chance
Well look u can trust me at this im really good at it the answer is 43 trust me
This can be solve by using the formula
D = P( 1 – i)^n
Where d is the depreciation value after n years
P is the initial value
i is the depreciation rate
n is the years
D = 1/3 ( 1800)
D = 600
So
600 = 1800 ( 1- 0.45)^n
Solve for n
<span>N = 1.83 years</span>