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Ber [7]
3 years ago
13

How has the definition of genocide changed over time

History
1 answer:
pishuonlain [190]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The definition of the crime of genocide as contained in Article II of the Genocide Convention was the result of a negotiating process and reflects the compromise reached among United Nations Member States in 1948 at the time of drafting the Convention. Genocide is defined in the same terms as in the Genocide Convention in the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (Article 6), as well as in the statutes of other international and hybrid jurisdictions. Many States have also criminalized genocide in their domestic law; others have yet to do so.

Explanation:

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5) According to John Green, why was Luther successful with his rebellion when others before him had failed?
gayaneshka [121]

5. According to John Green, Luther's success with the rebellion stemmed from his ability to, initially, make his teachings resonate with peasants and youths. But this resonance did not last long. Luther soon turned his teachings against the peasants in favor of the kings and princes.

6. <em>Luther's or the peasants' argument</em> about serfdom was correct. No one should endure bondage or serfdom, with increasing taxation without representation.

7. The reasons that Princes and Kings defied the Pope and broke away from the Church were<em> to possess landed property formerly owned by the Church (</em><em>Wealth</em><em>)</em>, <em>decide how they practiced religion (e.g. </em><em>divorce</em><em>)</em>, <em>and boost their </em><em>military powers</em><em> </em>(making people loyal to the government instead of to the Church).

8. The Reformation was ultimately a wrong move because it split the Church, creating too many denominations with different and confusing interpretations of the Bible. However, there are some valuable lessons. It separated the Church from the state. It created religious freedom.

The Church has no business mingling with the state.  The Church and the state should remain separate, complementing each other like institutions. Governments should not regulate religion because it is a <em>personal endeavor</em>. It is a <em>spiritual enterprise</em> and not <em>social or economic</em>. There are some aspects of life in which the state should not involve itself. Otherwise, individual rights suffer jeopardy.

Thus, the Reformation was a bag of the good and the ugly. Reformation should happen <em>within and not without</em> the Church. Luther's outcome seems to be projected from Satan. Any Reformation outside the Church is no Reformation. It is simply Separation and Division, generating Confusion.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/18535898

5 0
3 years ago
A was an area of a city where Jews were segregated during the Holocaust.
uranmaximum [27]
Nazi Germany I hope this helps
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did alexander the great influence American government
vovangra [49]

Answer:

He led important campaigns and expanded his empire from Greece to Persia, Babylon, Egypt and beyond, taking advantage of local political contexts as he conquered new territory

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
A political action committee (pac) attempts to benefit the members of an interest group by
NISA [10]
To <span>raising and contributing campaign funds to canidates who agree with the views.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Which of the following makes a true statement about the case of State v. Justin B. Goode?
uranmaximum [27]
Hey there!

I believe these are the followings:
The defendant pleads guilty to the charges at his arraignment. 
<span>The teacher testified that Goode would not break the law. </span>
<span>The police officer could not find any evidence against Goode. </span>
<span>The neighbor said that Goode sold him stolen video games.
</span>
The statement that is true about the case of State v. Justin B. Goode is that the teacher testified that Goode would not break the law

Hope this helps!:)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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