It’s most likely to be (C)
<em>Hi There!!</em>
<em>I think the answer is </em><em>False</em><em>.</em>
<em>Because, I think there was that it was an indirect tax that was hard to protest. related to molasses, which was an everyday item. only required traders to pay the new tax. was an example of taxation without representation.</em>
<em>P.S </em><em>Tell me if this is wrong...</em>
<em>#</em>
<em> </em>
<em># </em>
<em> </em>
ヾ(•ω•`)o
Answer: Very little proportion of globalization during the Middle Ages.
Explanation:
To answer this question, it is necessary to look at the most well-known definition of globalization: it is a process that implies the abolition of restrictions on the flow of goods, services, and people. Many think that this is actually a process that began only in the 16th century. Medieval states were centralized, closed, and not so friendly towards each other. More positive examples such as the Byzantine Empire, where the flow of goods flowed unhindered. Italian traders who had excellent relations with many countries through trade must not be left out in this context. However, globalization as a process is connected to modern economic thought, and its beginnings are connected with the 1st century.
<span>The Italian peninsula is in the center, and generally smaller than the Scandinavian peninsula. A similarity would be that they are both in the northeastern region of Europe.
Hope this helps! :)</span>
Answer:
Coahuila y Tejas (Coahuila and Texas) was one of the constituent states of the newly established United Mexican States under its 1824 Constitution
Explanation:
Texas eventually became the independent Republic of Texas, which in 1845 became a state of the United States of America.
