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Ket [755]
3 years ago
11

In 2021, Western Transport Company entered into the treasury stock transactions described below. In 2016, Western Transport had

issued 140 million shares of its $1 par common stock at $17 per share.
Required:
Prepare the appropriate journal entry for each of the following transactions: (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select "No journal entry required" in the first account field. Enter your answers in millions (i.e., 10,000,000 should be entered as 10).)

On January 23, 2021, Western Transport reacquired 10 million shares at $20 per share.
On September 3, 2021, Western Transport sold 1 million treasury shares at $21 per share.
On November 4, 2021, Western Transport sold 1 million treasury shares at $18 per share.

Business
1 answer:
mars1129 [50]3 years ago
3 0

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Step-by-step explanation:

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

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You want to take a dream vacation in 3.5 years. You plan to save up $5,000 in your vacation sinking fund. Assume an interest rat
Ket [755]
<h3>Answer:</h3>

<h3>Explanation:</h3>

The formula for calculating the Monthly payments P for the sinking fund is as follows:

P\;=\;\frac{A*i}{(1+i)^n-1}

where,

P = Monthly payments to be made

A = Total amount to be accumulated

i = Interest rate for given time period

n = Number of time period

Assuming interest is applied at the beginning of each period.

We are given two scenarios.

<h3><u>Scenario (i) - Deposit is made during the year:</u></h3>

In this scenario, as some of the year is already passed (assume 6 months), to complete the time period of 3.5 years the interest will compound 3 times (as the 0.5 year payments can be adjusted in the remaining part of the first year and no interest is applied on it). Hence, the interest will be applied 3 times.

\therefore P_{(i)}\;=\;\frac{5000*0.08}{(1+0.08)^3-1}\\\\P_{(i)}\;=\;\frac{400}{0.2597}\\\\P_{(i)}\;=\;1540.1676

<h3><u>Scenario (ii) - Deposit is made at the beginning of the year:</u></h3>

For this case, the interest will be applied 4 times to complete the time period of 3.5 years for payment.

\therefore P_{(ii)}\;=\;\frac{5000*0.08}{(1+0.08)^4-1}\\\\P_{(ii)}\;=\;\frac{400}{0.3605}\\\\P_{(ii)}\;=\;1109.6040

3 0
3 years ago
The manager provided the following information. Direct manufacturing labor hours: 2,400 hours Actual units produced: 12,000 unit
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

Labor efficiency variance = $5,760 (Favorable)

Explanation:

We know,

Labor efficiency variance = (Standard hour - Accrual hour) × Standard rate

Given,

Accrual hour = 2,400

Standard hour = Budgeted direct manufacturing labor hours × Actual units produced

or, Standard hour = 0.22 × 12,000

Standard hour = 2,640 hours.

Standard rate = $24.

Putting the values into the formula, we can get

Labor efficiency variance = (2,640 - 2,400) hours × $24

Labor efficiency variance = 240 × $24

Labor efficiency variance = $5,760 (Favorable)

As standard hours is higher then actual hours, it is a favorable situation.

7 0
3 years ago
Oakwood Primary Care Clinic is considering a capitation arrangement with a managed care organization in which the clinic would p
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

5000

Explanation:

Oakwood Primary Care Clinic is considering a capitation arrangement with a managed care organization in which the clinic would provide services to 1,500 members at $100 per member per month. Variable costs are projected at $200 per clinic visit, and fixed costs for the agreement are $800,000. Breakeven point in volume of clinic visits is 5000.

6 0
4 years ago
Assume that the price elasticity of demand for movie theatres is -.85 during the evening shows but for afternoon shows the price
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

The correct answer is option B.

Explanation:

A price elasticity of demand is always negative for normal goods. It indicates that the price increase causes demand to fall.

The price elasticity less than 1 means demand is less elastic or inelastic. In other words, a change in price will lead to a smaller change in demand.

Similarly, a price elasticity greater than 1 means demand is highly elastic. So a change in price will lead to a greater change in demand.

Since, afternoon shows have less elastic or inelastic demand, the theatre should charge higher price for them.

While, the evening shows are highly elastic so the theatre should charge lower price.

In this way theatre can maximize total revenue.

4 0
3 years ago
Your uncle lends you $2,000 less $100 (interest at 5 percent), and you receive $1,900. Use the APR formula to find the true annu
vesna_86 [32]

Answer:

APR =5.263%

Explanation:

Computation of the true annual percentage rate

Using the APR formula to find the true annual percentage rate

APR=(2 × n × I) / [P × (N + 1)]

Hence;

APR= (2 × 1 × $100) / [$1,900 × (1 + 1)]

APR=$200/($1,900×2)

APR=$200/$3,800

APR= 0.05263 ×100

APR =5.263%

Therefore the true annual percentage rate using the APR formula will be 5.263%

7 0
3 years ago
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