Answer:
The answer is "No Effect
".
Explanation:
In the situation wherein the write-off would not affect the 2019 net earnings, the write-off reduces that both debt accounts as well as the benefit counter-asset for similar quantities. Whenever an expenditure was recognized, net revenues were affected, therefore, there will be nothing to write off under the allowance approach, so the response is no effect.
The tax sheltered prgrma to encourage self employed people to acculumlate reitment funds is called Keogh plan.
A Keogh plan is a tax-deferred pension plan available to self-employed individuals or unincorporated organizations for retirement functions. A Keogh plan can be set up as both a defined-benefit plan or a defined-contribution plan, though maximum plans are set as the latter. A Keogh plan is a type of retirement investment account for self-employed people and business owners. Contributions to a Keogh plan are made pre-tax, while withdrawals in retirement face income tax. Positive sorts of Keogh plans may have higher contribution limits than other retirement debts.
A Keogh plan (is a tax-deferred pension account for self-employed people and employees of unincorporated businesses. Like IRAs, an worker can also put almost available investment into a Keogh plan, and the investment earnings develop on a tax-deferred basis.
Learn more about Keogh plan here:-
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Watch where you post, because this is not business!
Tendinitis leads to the inflammation of tendons, it's painful and not exactly fun!
Six is your answer because if it cost $2.00 and you have 4 it makes sense
Answer:
Following are the response to the given question:
Explanation:
For question 1:
The weighted average of each return is the expected return.
For question 2:
Standard deviation is a measured source of the square deviations from the mean via probability.
![Std \ dev = [0.1 \times (0.183-(-0.22))^2 + 0.2 \times (0.183-(-0.12))^2 + 0.3\times(0.183-0.17)^2 + 0.2\times (0.183-0.33)^2 + 0.2\times (0.183-0.56)^2]^{(\frac{1}{2})}\\\\](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Std%20%5C%20dev%20%3D%20%5B0.1%20%5Ctimes%20%280.183-%28-0.22%29%29%5E2%20%2B%200.2%20%5Ctimes%20%280.183-%28-0.12%29%29%5E2%20%2B%200.3%5Ctimes%280.183-0.17%29%5E2%20%2B%200.2%5Ctimes%20%280.183-0.33%29%5E2%20%2B%200.2%5Ctimes%20%280.183-0.56%29%5E2%5D%5E%7B%28%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%29%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C)
For question 3:
For point a:
For point b:
As per the CAPM: 
In Option I:
When the beta of the stock exceeds 1.0, the change in the required rate of return must be higher than the increase in the premium of market risk. Beta is the degree to which stock return changes as market returns change.
