Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of operating profit is shown below:-
Profit per unit = Purchase price from outside per unit + variable cost of production internally
= $15 - $7
= $8
Total increment in operating profit = Profit per unit × Total number of units
= $8 × 24,000
= $192,000
b. Minimum transfer price = Variable cost = $7 (because polk has overcapacity and there is no change in fixed cost and polk minimum has to recover its variable production cost)
c. Maximum transfer price = purchase cost from outside supplier = $15 (because if the internal transfer piece is more than $15 Bishop will lose so he prefers to buy from outside and the company as a whole will lose $192,000 in incremental operating profit
Answer:
A IS THE ANSWER
Explanation:
TO CONVERT KG TO CG YOU MULTIPLY YOUR NUMBER BY 100000 SO 32.7 x 100000 = 3,270,000 cg
Correct
b. the percentage a financial institution pays you to borrow your money
Answer:
The equipment originally cost 40,000 and has a salvage value of 8,000, which means that the amount that can be depreciated is 32,000. It has a life of 8 years and follows a straight line method so the yearly depreciation would be 32,000/8= 4,000.
The depreciation for the first 2 years is 4000*2= 8,000
So the book value of the asset is 40,000-8000= 32,000
Since according to the new estimate the total life is 5 years, and 2 years have already passed the remaining life of the asset is 3 years. Also since there is no change in salvage value the amount that can be depreciated is 32,000-8,000= 24,000
To find out the deprecation in year 3 we will divide 24,000 by the reaming life which is 3.
24,000/3= 8,000
The depreciation expense in year 3 would have been $8,000
Explanation:
It influence it by lowering the price and if it's by producing then people would want to go to the store that has more of the product that people want.
