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TiliK225 [7]
3 years ago
5

On January 1, 2015, Truesdale, Inc., purchased a piece of machinery for use in operations. The total acquisition cost was $33,00

0. The machine was expected to produce a total of 60,000 units in during its life. The machine actually produced 16,000 units during 2015, 23,000 units during 2016, and 21,000 units during 2017. The machinery has a salvage value of $3,000. Using the units-of-production method, the amount of depreciation that should be recorded during 2015 is approximately
Business
1 answer:
olga_2 [115]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$8,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation per units or bolts under the units-of-production method is shown below:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (estimated production units)

= ($33,000 - $3,000) ÷ (60,000 units)

= ($30,000) ÷ (60,000 units)

= $0.5 per unit

Now for the 2015 year, it would be

= Production units in second year × depreciation per bolts

= 16,000 units × 0.5

= $8,000

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Tech giant, TimeHop was concerned about creating a workspace that was inviting and encouraged collaboration. Knowing that most o
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

The statement is TRUE. Time Hop was concerned with physical design

Explanation:

Tech giant, TimeHop was concerned about creating a workspace that was inviting and encouraged collaboration. Knowing that most of its employees would work odd hours, there was care taken to lighting choices and types of furniture. TimeHop was concerned with physical design.

The statement is true.

7 0
3 years ago
The following is a partially completed lower section of a departmental expense allocation spreadsheet for Brickland. It reports
blagie [28]

Answer:

The correct option is b. $8,100

Explanation:

Since the question was asked about the allocation of maintenance department expense to assembly and the maintenance department expense is based on the square footage.

So, the following equation should be used which is shown below:

= Maintenance department expense × assembly square foot space ÷ total sum of square foot space

where,

Maintenance department expense is $18,000

Assembly square footage is 2,700

And, the total sum of square foot space equals to

=  Fabrication square foot space + assembly square foot space

= 3,300 + 2,700

= 6,000

Now, put these values on the above equation.

So, the value would be equals to

= $18,000 × 2,700 ÷ 6,000

= $18,000 × 0.45

= $8,100

The other cost is irrelevant. Thus, it is ignored while computation.

Hence, the amount of Maintenance department expense to be allocated to Assembly is $8,100

Therefore, the correct option is b. $8,100

7 0
3 years ago
Record the January 31, 2019 adjusting entry for the December 31, 2018 receipt of $3,000 from race participants for providing ser
MAXImum [283]

Answer:

Debit Unearned revenue   $1,000

Credit Service revenue       $1,000

Explanation:

When cash is received in advance for service yet to be provided, an asset and a corresponding liabilities are created.

The liability is then reduced as the revenue for which cash was collected in advance is earned.

Given that the December 31, 2018 receipt of $3,000 from race participants for providing services for three races. One race is held on January 31, 2019 and the other two will be held in March 2019.

Revenue from one race = 1/3 × $3,000

= $1,000

Since One race is held on January 31, 2019, entries required

Debit Unearned revenue   $1,000

Credit Service revenue       $1,000

Being entries top recognize revenue earned from the race held on January 31, 2019 .

4 0
3 years ago
Janis starts a small quilting and embroidery business. She purchases a technologically advanced quilting machine and an embroide
QveST [7]

Answer:

B. Cash Flow problem

Explanation:

Cash flow problem occurs in a business when the business struggles to pay back debts. It happens when a business cannot longer cover its debt payments and operational expenses. It is very common in new and growing business, because during growth period in a business, expenses are larger than receivables.

Janis in this case is facing cash flow problems as she is not getting enough clients and receivables to pay back the expenses her equipment is bringing in. The major solution to cash flow problem for short term/temporary issues is Financing.

7 0
3 years ago
"A company issues $20,000,000, 7.8%, 20-year bonds to yield 8% (market rate) on January 1, 2007. Interest is paid on June 30 and
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Interest expense for the year : 1,530,505.41

Explanation:

In the effective method the interest expense si determinate by multiplying the market rate with the carrying value.

Then, the difference against the cash outlay and this interest expense will amortize the bond discount:

Period B Carrying Cash outlay Int. Exp.  Amort Carrying Value

1 19,604,145 800000 764561.66 35438.34 19,639,583

2 19,639,583 800000 765943.75 34056.25 19,673,640

<em><u>Total interest expense:</u></em>

764,561.66 + 765,943.75  = 1,530,505.41

Then 800,000 - 764,561.66 = 35,438.34 amortization

new carrying value 19,604,145 + 35,438.34 = 19,639,583

Last: 19,638,583 x 0.078/2 = 765943.75

We add up the interst expense:

<em><u>Total interest expense:</u></em>

764,561.66 + 765,943.75  = 1,530,505.41

4 0
3 years ago
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