Find the circumference of a circle that has a diameter of 2 ft. use 3.14 for pi

How would you teach something you have learned this year in Math to someone younger than you? Write more than 5 sentences.

deff fn [24]

I would start by saying how much I enjoyed this lesson and how it has helped me in many ways I would also like to state how it was difficult at first but once I started to understand it, it became really easy and would like to thanks the teacher for teaching it.

4 0

3 years ago

P= 14413.49<br> R= 0.0015<br> T= 36<br><br> What is I= Prt

tamaranim1 [39]

Answer: I = 778. 33

Step-by-step explanation:

P= 14413.49

R= 0.0015

T= 36

The formula for calculating interest is given as :

I = PRT

substituting the given values , we have :

I = 14413.49 x 0.0015 x 36

I = 778.32846

I = 778. 33

6 0

4 years ago

Here is a list of ages (years) of children in a room: 5, 8, 5, 6, 8, 3, 6 State the median.

Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

The median of a list of numbers is the number found in the "middle" of all the numbers. What this means is that it has the same amount of numbers larger and smaller than it in the list. To find the median, we first have to organize the list from least to greatest. Doing this, we get 3, 5, 5, 6, 6, 8, 8.

Now that we have the list, we can find the "middle number" by taking off numbers the highest number then the lowest number. Doing this we get

3, 5, 5, 6, 6, 8, 8

5, 5, 6, 6, 8

5, 6, 6

6

This means our median is 6.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How does adding the log together automatically mean that it is a factorial?

andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer: The answer is given below.

Step-by-step explanation: We are given an equality involving logarithm and we are to show the implication of L.H.S. to R.H.S.

We will be using the following two properties of logarithm:

$(i)~\log_ba=\dfrac{1}{\log_ab},\\\\\\(ii)~log_ab+\log_ac=\log_a(bc).$

The proof is as follows:

$L.H.S.\\\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_2N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_3N}+\dfrac{1}{\log_4N}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{\log_{100}N}\\\\\\=\log_N2+\logN3+\log_N4+\cdots+\log_N100\\\\=\log_N\{2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N\{1.2.3.4...100\}\\\\=\log_N{100!}\\\\=\dfrac{1}{\log_{100!}N}\\\\=R.H.S.$

Hence proved.

6 0

3 years ago

Philip ran out of time while taking a multiple-choice test and plans to guess the last 4 questions. Each question has 5 possible

White raven [17]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

The parameters are:

x is the number of successes.

n is the number of trials.

p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

Considering that there are 4 questions, and each has 5 choices, the parameters are given as follows:

n = 4, p = 1/5 = 0.2.

The probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions is P(X = 1), hence:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{3} = 0.4096$

0.4096 = 40.96% probability that he answers exactly 1 question correctly in the last 4 questions.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

8 0

2 years ago