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Setler79 [48]
3 years ago
5

Manta Ray Company manufactures diving masks with a variable cost of $31. The masks sell for $40. Budgeted fixed manufacturing ov

erhead for the most recent year was $712,800. Actual production was equal to planned production. Required: State whether operating income is higher under variable or absorption costing and the amount of the difference in reported operating income under the two methods. Treat each condition as an independent case. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Business
1 answer:
riadik2000 [5.3K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

When there is no change in the beginning and ending units of inventory i.e the  units sold are equal to the units produced,the income under variable and absorption costing remains the same which is the condition in the given question.

Explanation:

If we have 80,000 units produced and sold then the income under both methods will be the same.

Manta Ray Company

Income Statement Variable Costing

Sales                $40*80,000=  $ 3200,000

Variable Costs $ 31*80,000=  $ 2480,000

Contribution Margin  $ 720,000

Less Fixed Costs $  $712,800

Gross Profit $ 7200

Manta Ray Company

Income Statement Absorption Costing

Sales                $40*80,000=  $ 3200,000

Variable Costs $ 31*80,000=  $ 2480,000

Fixed Costs $  $712,800

Gross Profit $ 7200

When there is no change in the beginning and ending units of inventory i.e the  units sold are equal to the units produced,the income under variable and absorption costing remains the same which is the condition in the given question.

If there is an increase in the inventory units ( ie. production is less than the Sales) the fixed manufacturing overhead cost is released from inventory and deducted from variable income.

Similarly when the inventory units decrease  ( ie. production is more than the Sales)  the fixed manufacturing overhead cost is deferred from inventory and added to variable income.

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Suppose you just bought a 25-year annuity of $8,200 per year at the current interest rate of 12 percent per year. What is the va
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Explanation:

by definition the present value of an annuity is given by:

a_{n} =P*\frac{1-(1+i)^{-n} }{i}

where a_{n} is the present value of the annuity, i is the interest rate for every period payment, n is the number of payments, and P is the regular amount paid. so applying to this particular problem, we have:

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a_{n} =95,559.38

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Answer:

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