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Svetach [21]
3 years ago
15

What percent increase is 21% over 76%

Mathematics
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
3 0
Answer:= 261.905% increase

Solution:
Calculate percentage change
from V1 = 21 to V2 = 76
(V2−V1)|V1|×100
(V2−V1)|V1|×100
=(76−21)|21|×100
=(76−21)|21|×100
=5521×100
=5521×100
=2.61905×100
=2.61905×100
=261.905%change
=261.905%change
=261.905%increase
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Will anyone help me with geometry ASAP!? Please!? In desperate help!!!
juin [17]

Answer:

14.  C   41

15. k = 72

Step-by-step explanation:

14.

For parallel lines, alternate exterior angles must be congruent.

3x - 43 = 80

3x = 123

x = 41

15.

The sum of the measures of the angles of a triangle is 180 deg.

k + 33 + 75 = 180

k + 108 = 180

k = 72

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Find three consecutive numbers whose sum is 84
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

three  consecutive numbers that add up to 84 are 27,28 and 29

Step-by-step explanation:

27+28=55

55+29-=84

8 0
3 years ago
Chico walks 3/5 mile to the library. Nikki walks 1/4 the distance that Chico walks to the library. How far does Nikki walk?
Effectus [21]
3/5 miles = 0.6 miles
0.6/4= 0.15 miles

Nikki walked 0.15 miles or 3/20 miles.

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4 0
3 years ago
(Before you answer I am looking for how I do it. I have the answers but I need to know an equation to do this instead of using l
Tema [17]

Answer:

14 and 16.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that two consecutive even numbers is 30.

Let's let n be <em>any number</em>.

Then the first <em>even</em> number must be 2n.

This is because n can be any number, either even or odd. However, if we multiply it by 2, this <em>ensures</em> that 2n is even. Remember that any number multiplied by 2 yields an even number.

Therefore, the consecutive even number will be (2n+2). Not (2n+1), because that gives an odd number.

We know that they sum to 30. So, we can write the following equation.

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And we solve from there:

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So, the value of n is 7.

Therefore, the first even number is 7(2)=14.

And the consecutive even number is 16.

Edit: Typo

7 0
3 years ago
3.8 times 10 to the power of -8​
Yuliya22 [10]

Answer:

1/38^8

Step-by-step explanation:

3.8 times 10 is 38

so it would be 38 to the power of -8 ( 38^-8 )

then you simplify

you have to rewrite the negative power

( you can't have negative power as numerator )

\frac{38^{-8} }{1}

so you put it a part of the denominator

which switches the sign

\frac{1}{38^{8} }

hope this helps

8 0
3 years ago
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