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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
6

The fact that a proposed project is analyzed based on the project's incremental cash flows is the assumption behind which one of

the following principles?1. underlying value principle2. stand-alone principle3. equivalent cost principle4. salvage principle5. fundamental principle
Business
1 answer:
il63 [147K]3 years ago
3 0

Stand alone principle

Explanation:

The principle that an organization must determine whether to undertake a project on the basis of the results of similar projects with the same risk.

Take for example: independent profit, independent risk.

It is possible to measure the isolated income of every individual business unit or section, then combine them together, to calculate the total profit of the whole organization.

When measuring self-employment, values will only be included because they are generated directly from the business of the company segment.

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John is planning to take out a personal loan for $4,500 to buy a car. He would like to keep his monthly payments at or below $15
klemol [59]

The greatest interest rate that John can accept and meet the criteria is  12.25% compounded monthly

 The monthly payment formula for a loan:

p= (\frac{pv \times r}{1-(1+r} )^{nt}

Where PV is the principal value of the loan,

r is the rate per month,

n is the number of months,

Here, PV = $ 4,500, n = 36,

Let r be the annual rate of interest,

P ≤ 150

p= (\frac{4500 \times \frac{r}{12} }{1-(1+\frac{r}{12}} )^{36}\leq 150

375\times r \leq 150-150\times (1+\frac{r}{12})^{36}

r\leq 0.1225

Thus, the greatest annual interest rate = 0.1225 = 12.25 %

Therefore, Option C is correct.

To know more about the monthly payments and interest rate, refer to the link below:

brainly.com/question/2557439

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
ABC Enterprises issues $400,000 of bonds paying a stated interest rate of 7%. The bonds are due in 10 years, with interest payab
Ainat [17]

Answer:

$305,772.29  

The bond was issued at discount

Explanation:

The pv value approach in excel comes handy in determining the price of teh bond.

The formula is stated below:

=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the yield to maturity of other bonds of similar risk and maturity at 11%

nper is the number of times that the bond would pay coupon interest to the bondholders ,since the bond is an annual coupon paying bond,it would pay coupon for 10 years

pmt is dollar value of the coupon payable by the bond annually which is 7%*$400,000=$28,000

fv is the face value of the bond at $400,000

=-pv(11%,10,28000,400000)=$305,772.29  

Since the bond was be issued at a price lower than its face value,hence it was issued at a discount

Alternatively

Present value of interest payment = 28000 * 5.8892 = 164,898

Present value of Bond Principal = 400000 * 0.3522 = 140,874.

Total present values                                                        305,772

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A certain small group books a meeting at a hotel that will be held in the third week of october--a period of traditionally high
RideAnS [48]
This group most likely received a rack rate.
4 0
3 years ago
Which best describes how the government sanctions technological monopolies? by creating the technology itself by prohibiting oth
Salsk061 [2.6K]

The answer is: by issuing a patent for the technology

Without patent for the technology, Existing large companies could not copy  the inventions made by smaller new companies and beat them in the market with sheer capital amount. Issuing patent provide opportunities for smaller inventors to enter the market.

5 0
3 years ago
2. A couple would like to take a cruise to Alaska, 15 months from now. They have $1500 in a savings account. The savings account
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

a.- $ 3,529.82  

b.-  $ 3,512.11

c.-  $   132,77

Explanation:

In each case, we must calculate the value of their current savings and the additional investment.

The saving are the same for each scenario so let's calculate that first:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 1,500.00

time 15 years

rate 0.01000

1500 \: (1+ 0.01)^{15} = Amount

Amount 1,741.45

Then we add the funds generated from the investment:

a.- 110 annuity due for 15 month:

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{-time} -1}{rate}(1+r) = FV\\

C  $ 110

time 15 months

rate 0.01

110 \times \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1 }{0.01} = FV\\

FV $1,788.3651

We add the savings and get a total of:  $ 3,529.82  

b.- 110 ordinary annuity

C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = FV\\

C  $ 110

time 15 months

rate 0.01

110 \times \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1}{0.01} = FV\\

FV $1,770.6585

Plus, original savings of 1,741.45 =  3,512.11  

c.-

If they need 3,900 then the fund must cover the difference between these and the savings future value:

3,900 - 1,741.45 = 2,158.55

Now we calculate the PMT, considering the payment are at the beginning:

FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1 }{rate}(1+r) = C\\

FV  $ 2,158.55

time  15

rate           0.01

2158.55 \div \frac{(1+0.01)^{15} -1}{0.01} (1+0.01) = C\\

C  $ 132.770

3 0
4 years ago
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