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oee [108]
3 years ago
7

Show that y=cos(t)y=cos(t) is a solution to (dydt)2=1−y2(dydt)2=1−y2. Enter your answers below in terms of the independent varia

ble tt in the order in which the terms were given. Be sure you can justify your answer.
Mathematics
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=sin^2t

Step-by-step explanation:

y=cost

DE :(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=1-y^2

If y is a solution of given DE then it satisfied the DE.

Differentiate w.r.t t

\frac{dy}{dt}=-sint

Using the formula

\frac{d(cosx)}{dx}=-sinx

LHS:(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=(-sint)^2=sin^2t

RHS

1-y^2=1-cos^2t=sin^2t

By using the formula

sin^2t=1-cos^2t

LHS=RHs

Hence, y is a solution of given DE

(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=sin^2t

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The decimal approximation for the trigonometric function sin 28°48' is

Given the trigonometric function is sin 28°48'

The ratio between the adjacent side and the hypotenuse is called cos(θ), whereas the ratio between the opposite side and the hypotenuse is called sin(θ). The sin(θ) and cos(θ) values for a given triangle are constant regardless of the triangle's size.

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