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oee [108]
3 years ago
7

Show that y=cos(t)y=cos(t) is a solution to (dydt)2=1−y2(dydt)2=1−y2. Enter your answers below in terms of the independent varia

ble tt in the order in which the terms were given. Be sure you can justify your answer.
Mathematics
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=sin^2t

Step-by-step explanation:

y=cost

DE :(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=1-y^2

If y is a solution of given DE then it satisfied the DE.

Differentiate w.r.t t

\frac{dy}{dt}=-sint

Using the formula

\frac{d(cosx)}{dx}=-sinx

LHS:(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=(-sint)^2=sin^2t

RHS

1-y^2=1-cos^2t=sin^2t

By using the formula

sin^2t=1-cos^2t

LHS=RHs

Hence, y is a solution of given DE

(\frac{dy}{dt})^2=sin^2t

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