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Wewaii [24]
3 years ago
13

A bag contains 5 red poker chips, 3 blue poker chips and 7 white poker chips. Two chips are drawn without replacement. Find the

probability that the first and second are red.
Mathematics
1 answer:
prohojiy [21]3 years ago
4 0
5 red, 3 blue, 7 white.....total of 15

probability of 1st drawn being red : 5/15 reduces to 1/3
without replacement
probability of 2nd being red : 4/14 reduces to 2/7

probability of both : 1/3 * 2/7 = 2/21 <==
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In a completely randomized design involving four treatments, the following information is provided. Treatment 1 Treatment 2 Trea
NeTakaya

Answer:

Option (b) 36.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Data provided in the question:

                       Treatment 1     Treatment 2     Treatment 3      Treatment 4

Sample Size          50                   18                     10                          17

Sample Mean        32                   36                    42                         48

Now,

The overall mean is calculated as

= \frac{\sum_{i = 1}^{4} n_i X_i}{\sum_{i = 1}^{4} {n_i}}

Here, Xi = Sample mean

n = sample sizes

Thus,

Overall mean

= [ (50 × 32) + (18 × 36) + (10 × 42) + (17 × 48) ] ÷ [ 50 + 18 + 10 + 17 ]

= [ 1600 + 648 + 420 + 816 ]  ÷ 95

= 36.67 ≈ 36.7

hence,

Option (b) 36.7

7 0
3 years ago
3) m_2 = x + 70<br>60°<br>A) -10<br>C) 11<br>B)-6<br>D) 9​
kogti [31]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP ITS ABOUT TO BE DUE
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

x=-1

Step-by-step explanation:

4(x-3(-2))=6(x-3(-2)) => 4(x+6)=6(x+6) => 4x+24=6x+26 => -2=2x => x=-1

6 0
3 years ago
If f (1)= -2, then the point is on the graph of f
Komok [63]
<h3>Answer:  (1, -2)</h3>

Explanation:

Writing f(1) = -2 means x = 1 and y = f(x) = -2 pair up together

So we have (x,y) = (1, -2) as the point on the f(x) curve.

6 0
3 years ago
Help please! any1 know this​
FrozenT [24]

The area of square: s · s = s²

The area of rectangle: (s + 6) · s = s(s + 6)

So:

s² + s(s + 6) = 56

s² + s(s + 6) - 56 = 0

Answer D.

8 0
3 years ago
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