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4 years ago

Inverse variation ?

Mathematics

2 answers:

const2013 [10]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Boyle's Law states P1 * V1 = P2 * V2 which can be solved for P2

P2 = (P1 * V1) / V2

P2 = (132 * 20) / 15

P2 = 176 kilo Pascal

Source: http://www.1728.org/boyle.htm

Step-by-step explanation:

Nookie1986 [14]4 years ago

4 0

<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>The pressure will be 176 k Pa</u>

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

Boyle's law states that the product of volume and pressure gives us a constant value so we can write the expression as

P1V1 = P2V2

By arranging the equation we get

P1V1 / V2 = P2

Putting the values

(132 x 20 ) / 15 = P2

P2 = 176 k Pa

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4 years ago

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Explanation:

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3 years ago

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

A university found that 20% of its students withdraw without completing the introductory statistics course. Assume that 20 stude

EleoNora [17]

Answer:

a) $P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

And adding we got:

$P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061$

b) $P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

c) $P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

d) $E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

We want this probability:

$P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

And adding we got:

$P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061$

Part b

We want this probability:

$P(X=4)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

Part c

We want this probability:

$P(X>3)$

We can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

Part d

The expected value is given by:

$E(X) = np$

And replacing we got:

$E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

3 0

3 years ago