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Brilliant_brown [7]
3 years ago
11

Suppose you want to transform the graph of the function y=tan(x+pi/4)-1 into the graph of the function y=-tan(x+pi/2)+1 which tr

ansformations should you perform.
A) Reflect the graph of the first function across the x-axis, translate it pi/4 units to the left, and translate it 2 units up.
B) Reflect the graph of the first function across the x-axis, translate it pi/4 units to the right, and translate it 2 units up.
C) Reflect the graph of the first function across the line y = -1, translate it pi/4 units to the left, and translate it 2 units up.
D) Reflect the graph of the first function across the line y = -1, translate it pi/4 units to the right, and translate it 2 units up.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

IgorLugansk [536]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A) Reflect the graph of the first function across the x-axis, translate it pi/4 units to the left, and translate it 2 units up

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given

parent function as

y=tan(x+\frac{\pi}{4})-1

and new function as

y=-tan(x+\frac{\pi}{2})+1

We can also write as new function as

y=-tan(x+\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\pi}{4})+1+1-1

y=-tan(x+\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\pi}{4})-1+2

We can see that

x-value is added by pi/4

So, it is shifted left side pi/4

and y-value is added by 2 units

so, it moves 2 units upward

we can see that

y-value is multiplied by -1

so, it reflected about x-axis

so,

A) Reflect the graph of the first function across the x-axis, translate it pi/4 units to the left, and translate it 2 units up

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olya-2409 [2.1K]

Answer:

63mm

Step-by-step explanation:

7mm+8mm=15.

15×15=225

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allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
Which equation has no solution?
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
1 year ago
What percent is equivalent to 9/4 ?<br> A) .225%<br> B) 22.2%<br> C) 44.4%<br> D) 225%
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8 0
3 years ago
Find the next two terms of the sequence: 80, ?40, 20, ?10, ______, ______. A) 20, 40 B) 1 2 , 1 4 C) 5, ? 5 2 D) ?30, ?40
denis23 [38]

Answer:

The correct option is C) 5, 5/2

The sequence given is:

80, 40, 20, 10, _____, ______

If we look at the given numbers, it appears that every next number is obtained by dividing the previous number of 2.

Like 40 is obtained by dividing 80 by 2

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Similarly:

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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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