Answer:
Correct answer: sin x ⇒D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] ; sin⁻¹x ⇒ CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2]
Step-by-step explanation:
In order for the function sin x to have an inverse function sin⁻¹x due to the monotony, the domain is taken D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] and the range of sin⁻¹x is CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2].
God is with you!!!
((4^7)/(5^2))^3 I'm pretty sure this is how you would right the problem to begin with
I wrote my decision on a piece of paper.
The answer is yes, because rhombus =parallelogram answer is yes