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Anton [14]
3 years ago
11

Flower Company manufactures and sells a single product that has a positive contribution margin. If the selling price and variabl

e costs both decrease by 5% and fixed costs do not change, then what would be the effect on the contribution margin per unit and the contribution margin ratio?
Business
1 answer:
alex41 [277]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. Contribution margin per unit will fall

b. Contribution margin ratio will remain the same.

Explanation:

To show this let us assume that we have:

Selling price per unit = $100

Variable cost per unit = $60

Therefore,

Contribution margin per unit = $40

Contribution margin ratio = $40 / $100 = 0.40, or 40%

If the selling price and variable costs both decrease by 5% and fixed costs do not change, we have:

Selling price per unit = $100 * 95% = $95

Variable cost per unit = $60 * 95% = $57

Contribution margin per unit = $95 - $57 = $38

Contribution margin ratio = $38 / $95 = 0.40, or 40%

From the above, contribution margin per unit fall from $40 to $38, while contribution margin ratio will remain the same at 40%.

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There is a 60 percent chance of low demand and a 40 percent chance of high demand. The corresponding (inverse) demand functions
Burka [1]

Answer:

<u><em>New houses build =200 </em></u>

<u><em>Profit =$13,860,000</em></u>

Explanation:

In this particular question there are 2 scenarios for demand function,

i.e. (a.)  60 percent chance of low demand, P_{60}  = 300,000-400Q

 (b.)  40 percent chance of high demand, P_{40}  = 500,000-275Q

∴ Expected demand function = 60%×(300000-400Q) + 40%×(500000-275Q)

= 380,000-350Q

P_{D} =380000-350Q

Revenue = (380000 - 350Q)×Q = 380000Q - 350Q^{2}

Here, the no. of new homes build will depend on maximizing profit

∵ Profit = Revenue - Cost

π = (380000 - 350Q)×Q - (140000+240000Q)

π = 380000Q - 350Q^{2} -  (140000+240000Q)

In order to maximize profit , we will

\frac{\delta P_{\pi}}{\delta Q} = 0

\frac{\delta P_{\pi}}{\delta Q} = 380000-350*2*Q-240000

∴ 380000-350×2×(Q-240000) =0

Q=200

<u>So number of houses that they should build =200 </u>

π = 380000Q - 350Q^{2} -  (140000+240000Q)

π = 380000-(350×200^{2}) - (140000+(240000*200))

π =$13,860,000

New houses to be build =200

Profit =$13,860,000

8 0
3 years ago
Monetary policy Select one: a. cannot be implemented quickly and most of its impact on aggregate demand occurs months after poli
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

c. can be implemented quickly, but most of its impact on aggregate demand occurs months after policy is implemented.

Explanation:

A monetary policy can be defined as the actions (macroeconomic policies) adopted and undertaken by the central bank of a particular country to control the money supply and interest rates so as to boost or enhance economic growth. The central bank uses monetary policies to manage inflation, economic growth through long-term interest rates and level of unemployment in a country. In order to boost economic growth, monetary policy is used to increase money supply (liquidity) while it is also used to prevent inflation by reducing money supply.

Generally, money supply comprises of checks, cash, money market mutual funds (MMF) and credit (mortgage, bonds and loans).

Typically, a monetary policy can be implemented quickly by the central bank of a particular country, but most of its impact on aggregate demand occurs months after policy is implemented.

8 0
3 years ago
The main transfer programs of the U.S. government include each of the following, except:
Alchen [17]

Answer:

d. wage payments to government employees.

Explanation:

Transfer payment is when income is received but neither good or service is exchanged.

Examples of transfer payments in the US include- Social Security, Medicaid, and unemployment insurance .

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Swifty Company incurred the following costs during the year: direct materials $24.40 per unit; direct labor $13.10 per unit; var
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Swifty Company incurred the following costs during the year: Direct materials $24.40 per unit

Direct labor $13.10 per unit

Variable manufacturing overhead $16.00 per unit

Variable selling and administrative costs $11.00 per unit

Fixed manufacturing overhead $132,000

Fixed selling and administrative costs $12,000.

Swifty produced 6,600 units and sold 6000 units.

A) Absorption costing= direct material + direct labor + variable overhead + fixed overhead

Absorption costing= 24.4 + 13.1 + 16 + (132,000/6,600)= $73.5

B) Variable costing= direct material + direct labor + variable overhead + Variable selling and administrative costs

Variable costing= 24.4 + 13.1 + 16 + 11= $64.5

4 0
3 years ago
Weekly demand for tennis balls at The Racquet Club is normally distributed , with a mean of 35 cases and a standard deviation of
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

a-The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b- The probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

Explanation:

a

The weekly average profit for the simulation is given where first the values are simulated using R which is given as below:

x<-round(rnorm(n,m,s))

Here

  • round converts all the values of the simlation to integer.
  • rnorm is the command for simulation
  • n is the number of values which is 52 in this case
  • m is the mean of the values which is 35
  • s is the value of standard deviation which is 5 cases.

The values of x are as follows

[1] 36 49 30 29 34 36 32 28 32 29 32 27 40 32 30 37 43 30 42 30 31 34 36 38 28 29 32 42 36 35

[31] 37 41 34 39 37 46 34 44 45 41 41 29 36 38 35 32 36 39 30 38 40 27

Now using these values, the average of the simulation values is cacluated as follows:

mean(x)

35.3462

Now using this with the value of profit of $50 gives:

Average Profit=$50 x 35.3462

Average Profit=$1767.31

The average weekly profit is $1767.31

b-

First number of cases are required so that the value will be greater than 2000 it is given as

Number of cases=2000/50=40

So firstly the Z-score is calculated which is as below:

Z=\dfrac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\Z=\dfrac{40-35}{5}\\Z=1

Now the probability is given as

P(X\geq 40)=P(Z\geq 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)

The value of P(Z<1) is calculated from the table which is given as

0.84134

So the equation becomes

P(X\geq 40)=1-P(Z< 1)\\P(X\geq 40)=1-0.8413\\P(X\geq 40)=0.1587

So the probability of having a weekly profit of more than 2000 is 0.1587 or 15.87%.

4 0
3 years ago
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