Answer:
B) Country A uses fewer resources to produce corn than Country B does.
Explanation:
An absolute advantage is a situation where a country or a company can produce some goods and services using fewer inputs compared to competitors. The company can produce more quantity of using the same amount of inputs than others. A country with an absolute advantage will manufacture a product at a lower cost than other countries or companies.
Absolute advantage enables companies and countries to gain from trade. Through specialization, a company will focus on what it can produce at a lower cost than others, and sell it. Country A has an absolute advantage if it can produce corn at a lower cost than country B.
Answer:
3%
Explanation:
Given the following :
Purchased merchandise = $43,338
Number of payments required = 6
Payment per period = $8,000
PV factor (PVIFA) = (purchased merchandise / payment per period)
PVIFA = (43,338 / 8000) = 5.41725
Using the PVIFA table, we locate the interest rate on PVIFA factor of 5.41725 for a period of 6 years.
For PVIFA of 5.4172, the interest rate is 3%
Hence the implicit Interest t rate = 3%
PVIFA = [1 - (1+r)^-n] ÷ r
Answer:
1. Overhead incurred during the year;
= Depreciation on manufacturing plant and equipment + Property taxes on plant + Plant Janitors wages
= 485,000 + 19,000 + 9,500
= $513,500
2. The under or over allocation depends on how much manufacturing overhead was allocated to jobs for the year.
= Actual machine hours * Overhead rate
Overhead rate = Manufacturing overhead cost / Allocated Machine hours
= 570,000 / 71,250
= $8
Allocated Manufacturing Overhead = 57,000 * 8
= $456,000
The allocated manufacturing overhead is more than the actual overhead. This means that it is Underallocated and the company did not budget enough for the overheads.
Underallocation = 513,500 - 456,000
= $57,500
Answer:
Increase and remain the same respectively
Explanation:
Given the above information, we know that current ratio is computed as;
Current ratio = Current assets ÷ Current liabilities
Current ratio = $60,000 ÷ $34,000
Current ratio = 1: 1.76
Working capital is computed as;
= Current asset - Current liabilities
= $60,000 - $34,000
= $26,000
As a result of the above, the current ratio increased because of the reduction in the current liabilities value while the working capital remains the same.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": Operational control.
Explanation:
Operational control comprises the steps companies take to determine how the firm will conduct its operations. Operational control is the handbook for operations managers where the procedure for each activity in the company is explained in detail so, in front of malpractices, managers will have a clear idea on how to make assessments.
