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user100 [1]
3 years ago
9

The depreciation deduction for year 11 of an asset with a 20-year useful life is $4,000. If the salvage value of the asset was e

stimated to be zero and straight line depreciation was used to calculate the depreciation deduction for year 11, what was the initial cost of the asset?
Business
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is $80,000

Explanation:

The formula for straight-line depreciation is:

[Cost of asset - salvage value(if any)] ÷ useful life of the asset

Depreciation = $4,000

Cost of asset= ? (represented by y)

Useful life of the asset = 20 years

$4,000 = y ÷ 20 years

y is $4,000 x 20 years

y = $80,000

Therefore, the initial cost of the asset was $80,000

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4. You have determined that Company X estimates bad debt expense with an aging of accounts receivable schedule. Company X's esti
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

a. $180

Explanation:

Bad debt expenses is generally classified as Administrative expense and hence it is included in the expense section of the income statement before the calculation of the Net Income.

From the question it is evident that the write offs during the period were $180 and hence the expense recorded in the Income statement as bad debt expense would be $180 because they are unrecoverable for the current period.

Hope this helps.

Thanks buddy.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
According to the demand-pull theory, inflation is caused by:
Aliun [14]

Answer:

Understanding Demand-Pull Inflation

Demand-pull inflation is a tenet of Keynesian economics that describes the effects of an imbalance in aggregate supply and demand. When the aggregate demand in an economy strongly outweighs the aggregate supply, prices go up. This is the most common cause of inflation.

Explanation:

hope it helps you

6 0
3 years ago
Your employer has asked you to start working overtime and has offered to pay $18 per hour for every hour you work beyond forty h
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

The marginal benefit of working each hour of overtime is $18.

Explanation:

<em>Marginal Benefit</em> refers to the maximum price I would pay for a second (or more) product or service.

In this case, the employer is willing to pay for each extra hour the amount of $18, which means that the <em>Marginal Benefit</em> increases.

It is considered, that the perceived value by the employer for each extra hour is $18.

7 0
3 years ago
At the end of the current year, using the aging of receivable method, management estimated that $31,500 of the accounts receivab
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

Dr Bad debt expenses $ 32,400

Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts $ 32,400

Explanation:

Preparation of the adjusting entry that the company should make at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense

Dr Bad debt expenses $ 32,400

Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts $ 32,400

($31,500+$900)

( To record its estimated bad debts expense)

Estimated Bad debts expense =Account receivables + Debit balance

Estimated Bad debts expense= $31,500 + 900

Estimated Bad debts expense=$32,400

7 0
3 years ago
According to the article, purchases of sugary beverages went down 12% in 53 Mexican cities as a result of a 10% tax. What kind o
const2013 [10]

Answer:

B) Demand is price elastic

Explanation:

Elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of demand to a change in price. It measures how much is effected on quantity demaned as a result of a unit change in price.

It is calculated as % change in quantity demanded by % change in price.

PED = % change in Quantity demanded/ % change in price

IF PED is greater than 1, demand is price elasitic

If IF PED is less than 1, demand is price inelasitic

If IF PED is equal to one, it is unitary

If the % change in price produces a more than proportional change in demand , PED is elastic.

In this question ,  a 10% increase in price as a result  of tax produces 12% fall  in demand, so  PED = 12%/10%= 1.2.

PED is greater 1, Therefore, demand is price elastic

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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