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lidiya [134]
3 years ago
15

The Reingold Hat Company uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. During 2018, the company recorded $800,000 in credi

t sales. At the end of 2018, account balances were: Accounts receivable, $120,000; Allowance for uncollectible accounts, $3,000 (credit). If bad debt expense is estimated to be 3% of credit sales, the appropriate adjusting entry will include a debit to bad debt expense of:
Business
1 answer:
olasank [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$24,000

Explanation:

Since in the question it is given that the  3% of credit sales is considered to be a bad debt expense

where,

Credit sales is $800,000

And, the estimated percentage is 3%

So by considering this above information, the amount debited to bad debt expense is

= $800,000 × 3%

= $24,000

All the other information i.e to be given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

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Bill spent most of his month’s allowance for expensive tickets to a rock concert after Lorene said she would go with him. On the
aksik [14]
<span>Tony did not breach a contract because it was all up to Lorene and who she wanted to go with. Lorene is not obligated to go with either. Although Bill spent most of his allowance, he could still ask someone else, sell his ticket and or even go by himself. I do not think Tony could be held liable even if he knew. It was not a nice thing to flake on Bill, but ultimately, it was Lorene's decision to make.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
You plan to make a series of deposits in an interest-bearing account. You will deposit $1,000 today, $2,000 in 2 years, and $8,0
solniwko [45]

Answer:

$5,641

Explanation:

DEPOSIT NOW  

$1000 * FVIF 9%,8 PERIODS

= $1000 * 1.9926

= $1992.6

IN 2 YEARS

= $2000 * FVIF 9%,6 PERIODS

= $2000 * 1.6771

= $3354.20

IN 5 YEARS

= $8000 * FVIF 9%, 3 PERIODS

= $8000*1.2950

= $10360

WITHDRAWAL: IN 3 YEARS

= ($3000) * FVIF 9%, 5 PERIODS

= ($3000) * 1.5386

= ($4615.80)

IN 7 YEARS

= ($5000) * FVIF 9%, 1 PERIOD

= ($5000) * 1.0900

= ($5450)

Total value = $1992.6  + $3354.20 + $10360  - $4615.80 - $5450

Total value = $5,641

So, the total future value after eight years is $5,641

7 0
2 years ago
Which of the following are assumptions of the simple CAPM model? I. Individual trades of investors do not affect a stock's price
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

I, II, and III are all correct and part of this model

Explanation:

The CAPM model or Capital Asset Pricing Model indicates the relationship between the amount of risk and the expected profit for a certain investment. This model holds many assumptions, which from the ones provided we can say that assumptions I, II, and III are all correct and part of this model. The only assumption that is not correct is IV, since the level of risk aversion that each investor has depends on how much they know about their investment.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

7 0
3 years ago
On November 1, Vacation Destinations borrows $1.57 million and issues a six-month, 9% note payable. Interest is payable at matur
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

(a) To Record the issuance of the note

Debit Cash $1.57 million

Credit Notes payable $1.57 million

<em>(To record notes payable issuance)</em>

(b) Adjusting entry for interest expense at December 31:

Debit Interest expense $23,550

Credit Interest payable $23,550

<em>(To record interest expense on notes payable as at Dec 31)</em>

Explanation:

Note payable is a promissory note with a written promise made by the borrower to the lender (payee) to pay a certain, definite sum at a specified date.

Interest expense on the notes is calculated as: Principal x Interest Rate x Time

In this case, the total interest expense is $1.57 million x 9%/12 x 6 months = $70,650.

Total interest expense to the Company as at December 31 is therefore $70,650 / 6 months x 2 months = $23,550.

3 0
3 years ago
What are the benefits of taxes for societies and individuals?
SSSSS [86.1K]
To improve the nation
4 0
3 years ago
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