Answer:
When a financial friction is added to the short-run model it: shifts the MP curve up.
Explanation:
The short-run model, IS/MP model, describes the Investment-Savings/Monetary Policy model used by the US Federal Reserve to decrease the real interest rate through the Federal Funds rate, i.
The Federal Funds rate is the interest rate that commercial banks with excess reserves lend to others in deficit. The resulting shift occasions a decrease in the real interest rate which triggers an increase in the inflation rate, and vice versa. With such short-run changes in the interest rate, inflation and output is influenced in desirable directions by the Federal Reserve as a foundation to achieve long-term shifts in the AD-AS model.
The AD-AS model is a long-term model that describes Aggregate Demand and Aggregate Supply which impact long-term inflation, interest rates, and output.
Answer:
The correct answer is A: interest= $21048
Explanation:
An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. While each periodic payment is the same amount early in the schedule, the majority of each payment is interest; later in the schedule, the majority of each payment covers the loan's principal.
Each payment is the same ($49,148), but the proportions of interest and capital pay changes. The interest proportion decreases from pay to pay.
Loan= 186000
i= 15%
n= 6 years
First pay:
i=186000*0,15=27900
amortization= 49148-27900=21248
Second pay:
i=(186000-21248)*0,15=24712
amort=49148-24712=24436
Third pay:
i=(164752-24436)*0,15=21048
amort=49148-21048=28100
While payments progress, interest decreases and amortization increases.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": the ease with which an asset is converted to the medium of exchange.
Explanation:
The liquidity of an asset reflects the ease with which it can be transformed from investment to cash. Liquid assets are those that can be transformed easily to cash and see little or no difference in the value of the assets when transformed. Illiquid assets are more difficult to convert and can result in a major decrease in value once converted.
Answer: The correct answer is "D. equal to MR, MC, and minimum ATC.".
Explanation: In long-run equilibrium, a purely competitive firm will operate where price <u>is equal to MR, MC, and minimum ATC.</u>
In perfect competition the companies are accepting price, therefore they will produce as long as the price is equal to the marginal cost and the marginal income thus ensures that the sale of each unit of product does not cost more than the profit obtained from the sale. of this and when the average total cost, that is, the total cost of producing each unit of product, is the least possible.
Gross Income. Net income is after taxes have been deducted.
