A country's income distribution is the <em>distribution of total GDP among the total population</em>
<em>hope it helps</em>
We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
Answer:
a<-3
bc -3(-2)=6
so if u go lower which the next number would be -4(-2)=8 which is greaterthan 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
C) (-6,0)(2,0)
For x-intercept, f(x) = 0:
