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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
7

In year 1 the CPI is 174, and in year 2 the CPI is 190. If Sarah's salary was $49,800 in year 1, what salary in year 2 would cau

se her to exactly "keep up with inflation"
Business
1 answer:
xeze [42]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Salary in year 2 = $54,379.31

Explanation:

<em>The Consumer price index is the weighted average of the cost of basket of good of goods and services consumed by a typical consumer in an economy. It is used to measure the rate of inflation rate.</em>

A rise in the price index implies inflation

Inflation is the increase in the general price level. Inflation erodes the value of money.  

So we can determine the salary in the  year  2 as follows:  

2006 Salary in the base year terms=

CPI in the current year 2/CPI base year 1 × salary in the current year

190/174× 49,800 = 54,379.31

Salary in year 2 = $54,379.31

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A new client of the member firm has just opened a margin account. After account approval, the client's initial trade is an order
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

$2,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question

Number of shares purchased = 100 shares

Price of common stock = $25

Given percentage = 50%

Based on the above information, there is no borrowing taken place in a margin account because there is a minimum requirement to maintain $2,000 in equity and when the purchase is made lower than $2,000 so it is important to pay the amount in full and the deposits are important when it is made more than $2,000 in the case when the trade is more than $4,000

7 0
3 years ago
Lance Lawn Services reports warranty expense by estimating the amount that eventually will be paid to satisfy warranties on its
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Income tax expense A/c Dr $30,035,000

       To Deferred tax asset A/c $35,000

       To Income tax payable A/c $30,000,000

(Being the income tax expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

For deferred tax asset:

= Deferred tax rate - Warrant liability × tax rate

= $435,000 - $1,000,000 × 40%

= $435,000 - $400,000

= $35,000

For income tax payable:

= Taxable income × tax rate

= $75,000,000 × 40%

= $30,000,000

3 0
3 years ago
Julie wants to create a $5,000 portfolio. She also wants to invest as much as possible in a high risk stock with the hope of ear
svetoff [14.1K]

Answer:

C) Invest $2500 in a risk free asset and $2500 in a stock with beta of 2.0

Explanation:

Stock that is beta 2 means that it is twice as volatile as the whole market. Meaning for example if the market is expected to move by 5% this stock will move 10%. New startup firms that are fast-growing usually have stocks in this category. It is more risky thank normal shares but no too much. We can invest $2,500 here.

We invest the remaining $2,500 in risk-free assets

This is a backup on the chance that the investment on beta 2 stocks do not perform, the risk-free assets will make up for losses.

3 0
4 years ago
A firm has earnings before interest and taxes of $27,130, net income of $16,220, and taxes of $5,450 for the year. While the fir
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

The answer is -$4,940

Explanation:

Net income = Profit before interest and tax minus interest minus taxes

We rewrite the formula to get interest:

Interest = Profit before interest and tax minus taxes minus net income

= $27,130 - $5,450 - $16,220

=$5,460

Cash flow to creditor equals:

Amount repaid to suppliers minus new amount borrowed plus interest

$31,600 - $42,000 + $5,460

-$4,940

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In December, Davis Company had the following cost flows: Molding Department Grinding Department Finishing Department Direct mate
slava [35]

Answer:

Required 1 ; Journals

Work In Process : Grinding Department $ 128,000 (debit)

Work In Process : Molding Department $ 128,000  (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Molding to Grinding Department</em>

<em />

Work In Process : Molding Department $ 128,000  (debit)

Work In Process : Grinding Department $ 128,000 (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Grinding to Molding Department</em>

<em />

Finished Goods Account $40,000 (debit)

Work In Process : Finishing Department $40,000 (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Finishing department to finished goods account</em>

Required 2 : Difference

<u>Job Order Costing </u>

Each production is unique and there may be no transfers to and from other departments. The is no inventory from previous processes as this is unique to the job order.

<u>Process Costing (Currently in use)</u>

There are transfers from and to other departments. Production is in sequence. For each departments we may also have inventories

Explanation:

<u>Finishing Department Costs Calculation</u>

Direct materials           $17,200

Direct labor                  $11,600

Applied overhead        $11,200

Total                            $40,000

Difference :

You should be able to see that the Journal entries above depicts a process costing system. Now provide reasons why this system differs from the job-order cost system. See the reasons above.

<em />

8 0
3 years ago
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