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Anna71 [15]
3 years ago
12

Wilma leads a task force charged with restructuring the order-processing system in the organization. The task force is composed

of her peers over whom she has little control, and some of whom do not seem to respect her. According to the contingency model, Wilma should adopt a(n) ________ leadership style.
A. employee-centered
B. task-oriented
C. relationship-oriented
D. participatory
E. initiating structure
Business
1 answer:
OLga [1]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. task-oriented leadership style .

Explanation:

Task-oriented leadership style -

It refers to the type of leader, who only target on the goal or project .

This type of leader is referred to as the task - oriented leadership style .

As from the very term, the person is only inclined towards his or her task

There type of leaders assign the tasks very clearly and making sure all the works are done on time with proper efficiency and accuracy .

These leader are very consult about the deadline and hence define all the task to get over before the deadline .

There type of leaders are very well organised and clear about the task .

Hence, from the given scenario of the question,

The correct answer is B. task-oriented leadership style.

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Perkins Corp. will receive 250,000 Jordanian dinar (JOD) in 360 days. The current spot rate of the dinar is $1.48, while the 360
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

$370,000

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Equity method journal entries (price greater than book value) An investor purchases a 25% interest in an investee company, and t
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

See answer an explanation below.

Explanation:

The journal entries will look as follows:

<u>General Journal </u>

<u>Description                                          Debit ($)             Credit ($)          </u>

Equity investment                               145,000

Cash                                                                                  145,000

<em><u>(To record purchase of investment.)                                                      </u></em>

Cash                                                      25,000

Income from equity investment (w.1)                              25,000

<em><u>(To record equity income.)                                                                       </u></em>

Cash                                                     20,000

Equity investment                                                            20,000

<u><em>(To record receipt of cash dividend.)                                                      </em></u>

Income from equity investment           2,000

Equity investment (w.2)                                                     2,000

<em><u>(To record patent amortization expense.)                                             </u></em>

Cash                                                   180,000

Gain on sale of equity invest. (w.4)                                 32,000

Equity investment (w.3)                                                  148,000

<u><em>(To record sale of investment.)                                                              </em></u>

Workings

w.1: Income from equity investment = Investee's net income * Percentage of interest = $100,000 * 25% = $25,000

w.2: Equity investment = (Patent value / Remaining useful life) * Percentage of interest = ($80,000 / 10) * 25% = $8,000 * 25% = $2,000

w.3: Equity investment = $145,000 + $25,000 - $20,000 - $2,000 = $148,000

w.4: Gain on sale of equity investment = Sales proceed - w.3 = $180,000 - $148,000 = $32,000

4 0
2 years ago
The Maurer Company has a long-term debt ratio of .50 and a current ratio of 1.40. Current liabilities are $970, sales are $5,190
bekas [8.4K]

Answer:

$7,210.1065

Explanation:

The computation of net fixed assets is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

Current Ratio = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities

Current Assets = 1.40 × $970

= $1,358

Profit Margin = Net Income ÷ Sales

= 9.30% = Net income ÷ $5,190

Net income = $5,190 × 9.30%

= $482.67

ROE = Net Income ÷ Shareholders Equity

16.90% = $482.67 ÷ Shareholders Equity

Shareholders Equity = $482.67 ÷ 16.90%

= $2,856.0355

Long-term debt ratio = Long term debt ÷ (Long term debt + Equity)

0.50 = Long term debt ÷ (Long term debt + $2,856.0355)

Long term debt = 0.50 × Long term debt + $2,856.0355

0.5 × Long term debt = $2,856.0355

Long term debt = $2,856.0355 ÷ 0.50

= $5,712.071

Total Assets = long term debt + Equity

= $5,712.071 + $2,856.0355

= $8,568.1065

Now

Total Assets = Current Assets + Fixed Assets

$8,568.1065 = $1,358 + fixed assets

So, the fixed asset is

= $8,568.1065 - $1,358

= $7,210.1065

7 0
3 years ago
In order to produce a new product, a firm must lease new equipment. The managers feel that they can sell 10,000 units per year a
kogti [31]

Answer:

The most the firm can spend to lease the new equipment without losing money=$75,000

Explanation:

The point at which the revenue in terms of sales equals the cost is the break-even point. This can be expressed as;

R=C

where;

R=revenue from sales

C=cost

And;

R=P×N

where;

R=revenue from sales

P=price per unit

N=number of units

In our case;

P=$7.5 per unit

N=10,000 units

replacing;

R=7.5×10,000=$75,000

Total revenue from sales=$75,000

C=p×n

where;

p=cost per unit

n=number of units

In our case;

p=$5

n=unknown

replacing;

C=5×n=5 n

At break-even point, R=C;

5 n=75,000

n=75,000/5=15,000

The break-even cost=5×15,000=$75,000

The most the firm can spend to lease the new equipment without losing money=$75,000

5 0
3 years ago
Primera Company produces two products and uses a predetermined overhead rate to apply overhead. Primera currently applies overhe
pychu [463]

Answer:

Primera Company

1. Plantwide predetermined overhead rate:

= $1,536,000/768,000

= $2.00 per direct labor hour

Overhead assigned to each product:

                                   Product 1    Product 2

Direct labor hours     480,000        147,200

Predetermined overhead

 rate  = $2 per direct labor hour

Total overhead =    $960,000    $294,400

2. Predetermined departmental overhead rates:

Department 1:    

Direct labor hours $2 ($1,536,000/768,000)

Department 2

Machine hours = $7.385 ($1,536,000/208,000)

Overhead assigned:

Product 1 = $960,000 (480,000 * $2)

Product 2 = $70,896 (9,600 * $7.385)

3. The applied overhead for the year:

Department 1 = $1,254,400 (627,200 * $2)

Department 2 = $1,512,448 (204,800 * $7.385)

Total   =            $2,766,848

Overapplied overhead for the firm = $1,134,848 ($2,766,848 - $1,632,000)

4. Debit Manufacturing overhead $1,134,848

Credit Cost of goods sold $1,134,848

To transfer the overapplied overhead to cost of goods sold.

Additional information needed if the variance is material is to determine the percentages to allocated to Work in process, Finished Goods, and Cost of Goods Sold.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Estimates:

                            Department 1   Department 2      Total  

Direct labor hours    640,000            128,000        768,000

Machine hours            16,000            192,000        208,000

Overhead cost       $384,000       $1,152,000    $1,536,000

Actual results:

                            Department 1   Department 2      Total  

Direct labor hours     627,200             134,400       761,600

Machine hours             17,600            204,800      222,400

Overhead cost       $400,000       $1,232,000  $1,632,000

                       Product 1 Product 2        Total  

Direct labor hours:

Department 1 480,000    147,200      627,200

Department 2  96,000     38,400       134,400

Machine hours:

Department 1    8,000        9,600         17,600

Department 2 24,800    180,000      204,800

3 0
3 years ago
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