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Sergeu [11.5K]
4 years ago
14

What is the slope of a line perpendicular to the line of y=-1/4x-1

Mathematics
1 answer:
harina [27]4 years ago
5 0

Answer: 4

The given line has a slope of -1/4 as this is the number in front of the x. The general equation y = mx+b has m as the slope. So m = -1/4 is given

Flip the sign to get -1/4 turn into +1/4 or just 1/4

Then flip the fraction (aka reciprocal) to go from 1/4 to 4/1 and that simplifies to 4.

Multiplying the original slope (-1/4) and the perpendicular slope (4) will result in -1.

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Factor: 8ab - 16ac + 12a
aksik [14]
The GCF we factor out is 4a

8ab = 4a*2b
16ac =  4a*4c
12a = 4a*3

Each term has been factored so that 4a is a factor

Using those factorizations, we can use the distributive property in reverse
8ab - 16ac + 12a = 4a*2b - 4a*4c + 4a*3
8ab - 16ac + 12a  = 4a*(2b - 4c + 3)

Answer is choice A<span />
5 0
3 years ago
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A 1/17th scale model of a new hybrid car is tested in a wind tunnel at the same Reynolds number as that of the full-scale protot
Olegator [25]

Answer:

The ratio of the drag coefficients \dfrac{F_m}{F_p} is approximately 0.0002

Step-by-step explanation:

The given Reynolds number of the model = The Reynolds number of the prototype

The drag coefficient of the model, c_{m} = The drag coefficient of the prototype, c_{p}

The medium of the test for the model, \rho_m = The medium of the test for the prototype, \rho_p

The drag force is given as follows;

F_D = C_D \times A \times  \dfrac{\rho \cdot V^2}{2}

We have;

L_p = \dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _m} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_m} \right)^2 \times L_m

Therefore;

\dfrac{L_p}{L_m}  = \dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _m} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_m} \right)^2

\dfrac{L_p}{L_m}  =\dfrac{17}{1}

\therefore \dfrac{L_p}{L_m}  = \dfrac{17}{1} =\dfrac{\rho _p}{\rho _p} \times \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2 \times \left(\dfrac{c_p}{c_p} \right)^2 = \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2

\dfrac{17}{1} = \left(\dfrac{V_p}{V_m} \right)^2

\dfrac{F_p}{F_m}  = \dfrac{c_p \times A_p \times  \dfrac{\rho_p \cdot V_p^2}{2}}{c_m \times A_m \times  \dfrac{\rho_m \cdot V_m^2}{2}} = \dfrac{A_p}{A_m} \times \dfrac{V_p^2}{V_m^2}

\dfrac{A_m}{A_p} = \left( \dfrac{1}{17} \right)^2

\dfrac{F_p}{F_m}  = \dfrac{A_p}{A_m} \times \dfrac{V_p^2}{V_m^2}= \left (\dfrac{17}{1} \right)^2 \times \left( \left\dfrac{17}{1} \right) = 17^3

\dfrac{F_m}{F_p}  = \left( \left\dfrac{1}{17} \right)^3= (1/17)^3 ≈ 0.0002

The ratio of the drag coefficients \dfrac{F_m}{F_p} ≈ 0.0002.

5 0
3 years ago
In a play-school with 500 students, the number of boys is 20 more than five-sevenths of the number of girls. Let’s find the numb
Arisa [49]

Answer:

Ok, so we can express the boys as another letter. just express them as the letter B for boys.

Step-by-step explanation:

I really don't know why.

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This function describes the time, t(d), in seconds, an object takes to hit the ground after falling d feet.
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The velocity of a particle moving along the x-axis is v(t) = cos(2t), with t measured in minutes and v(t) measured in feet per minute. To the nearest foot find the total distance travelled by the particle from t = 0 to t = π minutes

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81 - 35+30 (55) = 26 therefore 26cm is ur final answer
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3 years ago
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