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fredd [130]
3 years ago
8

What is the formula of 20 is 4% of what number. How do you get the whole number

Mathematics
2 answers:
lutik1710 [3]3 years ago
6 0

Well we know 4% is just 4/100.

So 20 = 4/100.

Let's find out what 1/100 is and multiply that by 100:

20/4 = 5.

So 1/100 = 5.

5*100 = 500.

lesantik [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

.04 * x = 20

x = 500

Step-by-step explanation:

4% is just 4/100 or .04

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

0.04x=20

Step 1: Divide both sides by 0.04.

0.04x  / 0.04  =  20  / 0.04

x=500

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Anika [276]

Answer:

0.4375

Step-by-step explanation:

if F=ma that to find the acceleration then use the formula a = F/m which gives you 0.4375

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6 0
3 years ago
Estimate the Value Of Each Expression to the nearest integer .
omeli [17]

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

14. We can represent 1 as √1 and 2 as √4 and because 1 < 3 < 4, we know that √3 is in between 1 and 2. However, 3 is closer to 4 than it is to 1 so √3 is about 2.

15. Again, 3 is √9 and 4 is √16. 9 < 10 < 16 so √10 is in between 3 and 4, however, since 10 is closer to 9 as it is to 16, we know that √10 is about 3.

16. -4 = -√16 and -5 = -√25, since 16 < 22 < 25, we know that -√22 is in between -4 and -5 but 22 is closer to 25 so the answer is -5.

17. -10 = -√100 and -11 = -√121 so -√120 is in between -10 and -11. Since 120 is closer to 121, the answer is -11.

5 0
3 years ago
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Grace [21]

Answer:

they ran 5 and 2 and half hour

Step-by-step explanation:

they ran 5 and 2 and half hour

6 0
3 years ago
Need help ASAP DUE SOON AND PLEASE SHOW WORk!!!!
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

87.92 inches cubed or 87.92 in.^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The base of a cylinder is a circle, so we need to calculate the area of the circle first. The equation for the area of a circle is:

area (a) = pi * r^2 =3.14*2*2 =12.56sq.inches

again,

volume of cylinder = area of the base * the height

= 12.56 * 7

= 87.92 inches cubed or 87.92 in.^3

5 0
3 years ago
Help! If you know this can you tell me how to do it?
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Here's how this works:

Get everything together into one fraction by finding the LCD and doing the math.  The LCD is sin(x) cos(x).  Multiplying that in to each term looks like this:

[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}+[sin(x)cos(x)]\frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)} =?

In the first term, the cos(x)'s cancel out, and in the second term the sin(x)'s cancel out, leaving:

\frac{sin^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}+\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?

Put everything over the common denominator now:

\frac{sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}=?

Since sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1, we will make that substitution:

\frac{1}{sin(x)cos(x)}

We could separate that fraction into 2:

\frac{1}{sin(x)}×\frac{1}{cos(x)}

\frac{1}{sin(x)}=csc(x)  and  \frac{1}{cos(x)}=sec(x)

Therefore, the simplification is

sec(x)csc(x)

5 0
3 years ago
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