N/n+1
n-1/n-1=1
result is n/n+1
well, if m = 1, let's see, then f(x) = √(mx) = √(1x) = √x
and then g(x) = m√x = 1√x = √x
well, if both equations are equal, then their ranges are also equal.
now, if m = "any positive real number"
f(x) = √(mx) = √m √x will yield some value over the y-axis
g(x) = m√x will yield some range over the y-axis, however, "m" is a larger value than "√m".
what that means is that so long "m" is a positive real number, the ranges of f(x) and g(x) will be the same over an infinite range on the y-axis, even though g(x) is moving faster than f(x), f(x) is moving slower because √m makes a stretch transformation which is smaller than one "m" does.
Answer:
3. is infinitely many solutions because the answer is 0=0
Step-by-step explanation:
3) 6x+4=6x+4
0=0
Answer: 14,658,134,400
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
There are 52 numbers to start with. After choosing the first number, there are 51 numbers remaining, etc.
1st and 2nd and 3rd and 4th and 5th and 6th
52 x 51 x 50 x 49 x 48 x 47 = 14,658,134,400
You can also find the answer using the following formula:

Answer is in a photo. I couldn't attach it here, but I uploaded it to a file hosting. link below! Good Luck!
bit.
ly/3a8Nt8n